Haryana State : Objective General Knowledge 1. At which of the following place was the famous battle of Panipat fought? (A) Kurukshetra (B) Sirsa (C) Panipat (D) Jind Ans :(A) 2. In 1526 the famous battle between Babar and Ibrahim Lodi was fought at— (A) Kurukshetra (B) Rewari (C) Panipat (D) Patiali Ans :(C) 3. When was the famous battle of Panipat fought? (A) 1539 (B) 1556 (C) 1565 (D) 1576 Ans :(B) 4. The third battle of Panipat was fought between— (A) Ahmad Shah Abdali and Maratha rulers (B) Nadir Shah and Mohd. Shah (C) Prithvi Raj Chauhan and Mohd. Gauri (D) Sher Khan and Humayun Ans :(A) 5. At which place of Haryana did Lord Krishna preach the message of Geeta ? (A) Ambala (B) Sonipat (C) Yamuna Nagar (D) Kurukshetra Ans :(D) 6. In 1947 when India was declared Independent, which of the following States was Haryana a part? (A) Delhi (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Punjab (D) Jammu Kashmir Ans :(C) 7. When was the State of Haryana formed? (A) 1st Nov., 1966 (B) 10th Dec., 1966 (C) 2nd Jan., 1967 (D) 4th March, 1967 Ans :(A) 8. With how many states does the boundary of Haryana touch? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 Ans :(B) 9. Which one of the following union Territories touches the boundary of Haryana ? (A) Lakshadweep (B) Pondicherry (C) New Delhi (D) All the three Ans :(C) 10. What is the total area of Haryana ? (A) 44,212 km2 (B) 46,213 km2 (C) 48,314 km2 (D) 52,276 km2 Ans :(A) 11. How many districts are there in Haryana ? (A) 19 (B) 25 (C) 28 (D) 32 Ans :(A) 12. As per census of 2001 the total population of Haryana is— (A) 1,91,72,483 persons (B) 2,11,44,564 persons (C) 2,40,82,988 persons (D) 2,64,44,271 persons Ans :(B) 13. What is the percentage of country's population in Haryana ? (A) 2% (B) 2.50% (C) 4% (D) 6% Ans :(A) 14. In which of the districts of Haryana is the H.M.T. factory situated? (A) Patiala (B) Ambala (C) Jind (D) Faridabad Ans :(B) 15. Where is the Atlas Industry in Haryana situated? (A) Sonipat (B) Gurgaon (C) Hisar (D) Panchkula Ans :(A) 16. Which one of the following is situated in Gurgaon of Haryana ? (A) Manufacturing of Rajdoot Motor Cycle (B) Manufacturing of Maruti Cars (C) Manufacturing of Tata-Sumo (D) All the above Ans :(B) 17. In which district of Haryana is Rajdoot Motor Cycle manufactured ? (A) Hisar (B) Karnal (C) Ambala (D) Faridabad Ans :(D) 18. Odinance regarding the prohibition of alcohol was passed on 1st July, 1996. Later on it was withdrawn on— (A) 1st April, 1998 (B) 1st April, 1997 (C) 1st June, 1998 (D) 1st Aug., 1997 Ans :(A) 19. In which of the following years was each village of Haryana electrified? (A) In 1968 (B) In 1970 (C) In 1972 (D) In 1976 Ans :(B) 20. According to 2001 census what is the percentage of Literacy in Haryana ? (A) 62.40% (B) 55.85% (C) 65.72% (D) 67.9% Ans :(D) 21. Where has the National Research Institute in Haryana been established? (A) At Sirsa (B) At Kurushetra (C) At Karnal (D) At Jind Ans :(C) 22. Which of the following Central Territory is the capital of Haryana ? (A) Chandigarh (B) Pondicherry (C) New Delhi (D) Lakshadweep Ans :(A) 23. Which one of the following folk dances belongs to Haryana ? (A) Baoul (B) Yaksha-Gaan (C) Gidda (D) Biehu Ans :(C) 24. Which of the following Indian players belongs to Haryana ? (A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Kapil Dev (C) Sachin Tandulkar (D) Azharudeen Ans :(B) 25. The turban, worn by males in Haryana is known as— (A) Toda (B) Muretha (C) Paggar (D) Khandwa Ans :(D) 26. Where is Chaudhary Charan Singh University located at Haryana ? (A) Hisar (B) Kaithal (C) Jhajjar (D) Gurgaon Ans :(A) 27. Which city of Haryana is known as 'City of Weavers' ? (A) Mahendragarh (B) Fatehabad (C) Karnal (D) Panipat Ans :(D) 28. Of which of the following kings' was Thaneshwar city of Haryana the capital? (A) Kanishka (B) Harshwardhan (C) Chandra Gupta Maurya (D) Samrat Ashok Ans :(B) 29. The glory and strength of which of the cities of Haryana was discussed in the book written by Chinese traveller Huen-Tsang? (A) Thaneshwar (B) Patiala (C) Mahendragarh (D) Kurukshetra Ans :(A) 30. In which district of Haryana is the 'Badkhal Lake' situated? (A) Hisar (B) Jind (C) Sirsa (D) Faridabad Ans :(D) 31. Where is the biggest animal husbandry farm of Asia situated at Haryana ? (A) Ambala (B) Bhiwani (C) Hisar (D) Rohtak Ans :(C) 32. Not only to check the growth of population, but also to improve the male female ratio, which of the following projects is being launched by the state government? (A) Devi-Rupak-Project (B) Indra-Hareli-Saheli-Project (C) Farlo project (D) Bhagyodaya Ans :(A) 33. Which project is being launched in Haryana for the welfare of poor girls? (A) Apni-Beti-Apna-Dhan (B) Apni-Beti-Paraya Dhan (C) Paraya Dhan-Paraie Beti (D) Indra-Saheli-Project Ans :(A) 34. At which of the pilgrimage centres was the message of Geeta preached by Krishna to Arjun ? (A) At Markandey Tirth (B) Jyotisar Sarover (C) Brahm Sarovar (D) Kaleshwar Tirth Ans :(B) 35. In which city of Haryana was the great epic Mahabharat written by Ved Vyas? (A) Hisar (B) Sonipat (C) Yamuna-Nagar (D) Kurukshetra Ans :(D) 36. Where is the Motilal Nehru sports school situated at Haryana ? (A) Rai (Sonipat) (B) Pataudi (Gurgaon) (C) Thanesar (Kurukshetra) (D) Morni (Ambala) Ans :(A) 37. According to 2001 census of India, which district of Haryana has the highest density? (A) Panipat (B) Panchkula (C) Rohtak (D) Faridabad Ans :(D) 38. According to 2001 census which of the following districts of Haryana has the lowest density ? (A) Sirsa (B) Karnal (C) Jhajjar (D) Rewari Ans :(A) 39. Santosh Yadav, the only woman in the world, who climbed twice the Mt. Everest belongs to which state? (A) Punjab (B) Haryana (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Jammu Kashmir Ans :(B) 40. Which place of Haryana was the political as well as social working place of freedom fighter Lala Lajpat Rai ? (A) Ambala (B) Jhajjar (C) Jind (D) Hisar Ans :(D) 41. Into how many divisions has Haryana been divided? (A) Three divisions (B) Four divisions (C) Six divisions (D) Eight divisions Ans :(B) 42. Being famous in the production of Basmati rice, which district of Haryana is known as "Dhan-ka-katora". (A) Sirsa (B) Karnal (C) Panchkula (D) Jind Ans :(B) 43. From the point of view of population, what is the rank of Haryana in the country? (A) 14th (B) 15th (C) 16th (D) 18th Ans :(C) 44. Who was the founder of Haryana Vikas Party? (A) Chaudhary Devi Lal (B) Chaudhary Bansi Lal (C) Chaudhary Bhajan Lal (D) All the above Ans :(B) 45. Where is the High Court of Haryana functioning? (A) Patiala (B) Chandigarh (C) Sirsa (D) Gurgaon Ans :(B) 46. How many total No. of seats are there in Haryana's Assembly? (A) 75 (B) 80 (C) 85 (D) 90 Ans :(D) 47. Who appoints the Advocate General of the State? (A) President with the consent of Governor (B) Governor with the consent of Chief Minister (C) Governor himself (D) None of them Ans :(C) 48. Who appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission? (A) Chief Minister of the State (B) Governor (C) President on the recommendation of the Governor (D) Prime Minister on the recommendation of the Governor Ans :(B) 49. How many seats are allotted to the members of Rajya Sabha from Haryana State? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 Ans :(A) 50. How many seats are allotted to the lower house of Parliament from Haryana State? (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 18 Ans :(B) 51. Who is the constitutional Head of the State Government? (A) Governor (B) Chief Minister (C) Chief Justice of India (D) None of the above Ans :(A) 52. The chairman of the state public service commission in appointed by— (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Chief Minister (D) Governor Ans :(D) 53. At the time of appointing the judges of The High Court— (A) President takes the advice of Chief Minister (B) President takes the advice of Chief Justice (C) President consults the Governor (D) President works on his own judgement own Ans :(C) 54. In whose name is the budget of the next financial year produced in the state Legislative Assembly? (A) In the name of the President (B) In the name of the Prime Minister (C) In the name of the Chairman of Legislative Assembly (D) None of these Ans :(A) 55. In which article of the Indian Constitution is the provision of the State Public Service Commission? (A) Article-315 (B) Article-317 (C) Article-319 (D) Article-323 Ans :(A) 56. Governor appoints the District Magistrate— (A) With the consent of the Central Govt. (B) With the consent of President (C) With the consent of Prime Minister (D) With the consent of the council of Ministers the state Ans :(D) 57. Whom among the following has the Governor no right to appoint? (A) Chief Minister (B) Members of the State Public Service Commission (C) Judges of the State High Court (D) Advocate General Ans :(C) 58. Kalpna Chawla died in the space mission on— (A) 1st Jan., 2003 (B) 5th Feb., 2003 (C) 3rd Feb., 2003 (D) 1st Feb., 2003 Ans :(D) 59. The first state of the country where all the village are electrified— (A) Orissa (B) Punjab (C) Haryana (D) Himachal Pradesh Ans :(C) 60. Where is the Headquarters of Mahendargarh district in Haryana ? (A) Narnaul (B) Karnal (C) Kaithal (D) Bhiwani Ans :(A) 61. Which unique project is being launched in Haryana to raise the standard of female children in Haryana ? (A) Indra-Harelli-Saheli-Yojna (B) Apni Beti-Apna dhan-Yojna (C) Indra Sahara-Yojna (D) All the above Ans :(B) 62. First time the President's rule was imposed in Haryana— (A) 21st Nov., 1967 (B) 30th April, 1977 (C) 2nd Dec., 1989 (D) 6th April, 1991 Ans :(A) 63. Who is famous with the name of Haryana Kesari ? (A) Pt. Neki Ram Sharma (B) Devi Lal (C) Bansi Lal (D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma Ans :(A) 64. When was Ambala established as a cantonment area (Military base) ? (A) In 1839 (B) In 1841 (C) In 1843 (D) In 1848 Ans :(C) 65. Who was the fIrst Governor of Haryana ? (A) B. N. Chakravorty (B) R. S. Narula (C) Dhanik Lal MandaI (D) Dharam Veer Ans :(D) 66. Who was the first Chief Minister of Haryana ? (A) Banarsi Das Gupta (B) Rao Virendra Singh (C) Bhajan Lal (D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma Ans :(D) 67. In which district of Haryana is the Mohar Singh Stadium (Mayur) situated? (A) Faridabad (B) Ambala (C) Kurushetra (D) Yamuna-Nagar Ans :(A) 68. Which breed of buffaloes is famous in Haryana? (A) Turra (B) Murra (C) Chaspa (D) Pushpa Ans :(B) 69. When was Bhiwani textile mill establised at Haryana? (A) 1932 (B) 1937 (C) 1943 (D) 1948 Ans :(B) 70. Which district of Haryana ranks first in the production of mustard? (A) Mahendragarh (B) Faridabad (C) Rohtak (D) Panipat Ans :(A) 71. For which of the following industries is Rewari district of Haryana famous in India— (A) Brass Utensils Industry (B) Tilla Shoe Industry (C) Hero-Honda-Motor Cycle Industry (D) All the above Ans :(D) 72. Which article manufactured in Haryana is exported to foreign countries? (A) Brass Utensils (B) Paint (C) Liberty Shoes (D) Wooden Furniture Ans :(C) 73. Which of the following factories are established at Faridabad ? (A) Rubber Tyre (B) Tractor (C) Refrigerator (D) All these Ans :(D) 74. Who constructed the famous 'Sarveshwar Mahadeo Temple' at Kurukshetra ? (A) J. K. Birla (B) Baba Tarak Nath (C) Baba Sarwan Nath (D) Baba Shivgiri Ans :(C) 75. Where is the famous and old temple of Sita Mata established at Haryana ? (A) Gurgaon (B) Hisar (C) Narnaul (D) Rohtak Ans :(A) 76. At which place of Haryana did a battle between Mohd. Gauri and Prithvi Raj Chauhan take place in Medieval period of 1191 and 1192 ? (A) Gharonda (B) Tarawari (C) Asandh (D) Nising Ans :(B) 77. The tomb of Ibrahim Lodi is situated at— (A) Panipat (B) Gurgaon (C) Mahendragarh (D) Rohtak Ans :(A) 78. Haryana is bounded by— (A) Himachal Pradesh in the North, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi in the east, Rajasthan in the South and South-East and Punjab and Chandigarh in the North-West (B) Himachal Pradeshin the East, Chhattisgarh in the North, Punjab in the South and Uttar Pradesh in the West (C) Jammu Kashmir in the West, Punjab in the East, Uttar Pradesh in the North and Uttaranchal in the South (D) None of these Ans :(A) 79. Haryana State is the— (A) Southern State (B) North-Western State (C) Eastern State (D) South-Eastern-State Ans :(B) 80. Palwal city of Haryana is in which district of the state? (A) Panchkula (B) Fatehabad (C) Yamuna-Nagar (D) Faridabad Ans :(D) 81. Who is the present Governor of Haryana ? (A) Babu Permanand (B) T. V. Rajeshwar (C) Kailash Pati Misra (D) A. R. Kidwai Ans :(D) 82. First novel written in Haryanbi language is— (A) Heru-ki-Kahin (B) Dan Lila (C) Surahi Gaiya (D) Jharufiri Ans :(D) 83. Who was the founder of Vishal-Haryana Party of Haryana ? (A) Rao Virendra Singh (B) Om Prakash Chautala (C) Hukum Singh (D) Bhagwat Dayal Sharma Ans :(A) 84. In which part of Haryana are the Siwalik Ranges situated? (A) South-Eastern (B) North-Western (C) North-East (D) South-West Ans :(C) 85. "Banwali" the main land of Indus civilization is situated in which district of Haryana— (A) Hisar (B) Rewari (C) Faridabad (D) Panchkula Ans :(A) 86. Haryana day is celebrated— (A) 1st Nov. (B) 13th Nov. (C) 1st Dec. (D) 8th Dec. Ans :(A) 87. Which state of the country is famous as 'Land of Milk and Curd'— (A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Uttaranchal (C) Haryana (D) Punjab Ans :(C) 88. Where is the Bata Shoe manufacturing factory situated in Haryana ? (A) Panipat (B) Faridabad (C) Bhiwani (D) Palwal Ans :(B) 89. Total forested area in Haryana is— (A) 964 km2 (B) 6940 km2 (C) 2440 km2 (D) 4230 km2 Ans :(A) 90. The working field of famous Nawab Pataudi is— (A) Literature (Poetry) (B) Amphitheatre (C) Sports (Cricket) (D) Politics Ans :(C) 91. Mithathal famous for the remains of Indus civilization is situated in— (A) Jind district (B) Hisar district (C) Bhiwani district (D) All these Ans :(C) 92. Where is the Manzi Shaib Gurudwara situated? (A) Kaithal (B) Jhajjar (C) Fatehabad (D) Rewari Ans :(A) 93. The maximum area in the district of Haryana is— (A) Ambala (B) Gurgaon (C) Bhiwani (D) Sonipat Ans :(C) 94. According to population of 2001, Faridabad district ranks first in the state, its population is— (A) 21,94,586 (B) 24,40,396 (C) 32,80,160 (D) 34,30,264 Ans :(A) 95. Geeta Jutsi the famous player of Haryana is associated with— (A) Chess (B) Weight Lifting (C) Lawn Tennis (D) Atheletics Ans :(D) 96. Which of the following dance is performed by women? (A) Teej dance (B) Umru dance (C) Loor dance (D) Manjeera dance Ans :(A) 97. Where is the Panchwati pilgrim place situated in Faridabad ? (A) Palwal (B) Hodal (C) Ballabhgarh (D) None of these Ans :(A) 98. Which ancestor king of emperor Harshvardhan made the construction of Thaneshwar Mahadev temple near Thaneshwar city? (A) Prabhakar Vardhan (B) Nar Vardhan (C) Puniya Bhuti (D) Adithya Vardhan Ans :(C) 99. Which Tomb has been declared as National heritage under the archaeological land and remnants act 1958 ? (A) Sheikh Fareed (B) Sheikh-Chehli (C) Ibrahim Abdullah (D) Ali Shah Kalander Ans :(B) 100. In which district is the Tomb of Gulam ruler Rajia Sultana situated? (A) Ambala (B) Karnal (C) Kaithal (D) Faridabad Ans :(C)

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IAF Airman Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades Indian Air Force Airman Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades General Information : Syllabus • Qualification Candidate should have passed intermediate/10+2/Equivalent Examination with Physics and Mathematics with minimum of 50% marks in overall aggregate OR should have pass a three years Diploma Course in Engineering (Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics/Automobile/Computer Science/Instrumentation Technology/Information Technology) with at least 50% marks from a Govt. recognised Polytechnic/Institute. • Medical Standards (a)Height :Minimum acceptable height : 152.5 cm. (b)Chest :Minimum range of expansion : 5 cm (c)Weight :Proportionate to height and age. (d)Vision :Minimum visual standard : Unaided 6/36, corrected to at least 6/9 in each eye with spectacles, dioptectric power not exceeding ± 3.5 Dioptres in any axis. Full field of vision and Defective safe colour vision CP-II/III.(Candidates should bring latest prescription and spectacles for corrected vision, if used) (e)Corneal surgery(PRK/LASIK) is not acceptable. (f)Hearing :Candidates should have normal hearing, i.e., able to hear forced whisper from a distance of 6 metres with each ear separately (Ears to be free of wax). (g)Dental :Should have healthy gums, good set of teeth and minimum 14 dental points. (h)Health :The candidate should be free from any medical or surgical deformity. He should be free from all communicable diseases and skin ailments. Candidates must be physically and mentallyFITto perform duty in any part of the world, in any climate and terrain. • Tenure Enrolment is for an initial period of 20 years extendable upto the age of 57 years. • Training Initially candidates will be sent for a Joint Basic Phase Training (JBPT) for 12 weeks at ATS Belgaum (Karnataka). On successful completion of JBPT, candidates will be allocated trades and sent for trade training of specified durations. Training is however liable to be terminated at any time if the trainee fails to achieve the required standards in academics, profession, physical fitness and discipline or is found to be medically unfit. • Written Test Candidates will be tested in English, Physics and Mathematics based on CBSE syllabus of AISSCE. Question papers will be objective type and bilingual (English & Hindi) except English Paper. Duration of Written Test will be 60 minutes. Candidates are to qualify in each paper separately. Results of the written test will be declared on the same day. • Physical Fitness Test (PFT) In Physical Fitness Test, a 1.6 km run to be completed in a maximum of 8 minutes. Candidates completing the PFT in less than 7 minutes 30 seconds will be awarded additional marks on a sliding scale. Candidates are advised to bring theirsports shoesandshorts. • Interview and Medical Examination Candidates who have passed the Written Test and PFT will be interviewed. Working knowledge of spoken English is a prerequisite. Those who are recommended in interview will be subjected to Medical Examination by Air Force Medical Team as per IAF medical standards. The candidates are advised, if required, to get their ears cleaned of wax, tartar and stains removed from teeth and eyesight corrected before appearing in the written test. Candidates using glasses should bring with them the latest prescription for the same from their eye specialist. • Examination Centres Ambala, New Delhi, Kanpur, Barrackpore (Kolkata), Jodhpur, Mumbai, Bhopal, Bangalore, Chennai, Bhubaneshwar, Bihta (Patna), Guwahati, Secunderabad and Kochi (Kerala).

Airman Selection Test Group ‘X’ : Solved Paper Indian Air Force Airman Selection Test, 2008 : Solved Paper Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Florence Nightingle was born in the year 1820 in a small town in Italy. Her parents were famous and rich. They looked after little Florence very carefully. But, Florence was thin and sickly. One day little Florence said to her father, “father, I would like to be a nurse.” The little girl's father said, “My dear, I do not think you can be a nurse. Nursing is hard work.” “I will try, ” said Florence. Soon she began to learn nursing at home. One day Florence was returning home early from school. On the way she saw a dog lying on the road. It was crying bitterly. An unkind boy hit the poor creature with a big stone. It hurt right leg and it was bleeding badly. Florence became very sad. She gently carried the dog home and nursed the wound. She tied a bandage tightly round the leg. In a week the dog was quite well. Soon the dog became friendly with Florence. It wagged its tail and jumped around her playfully and licked Florence all over, as if, it wanted to say, “Thank you, little nurse, thank you.” 1. Florence wanted to become— (A) An animal lover (B) A teacher (C) A nurse (D) An M.L.A. Ans : (C) 2. When Florence expressed her desire to become a nurse her father ? (A) Agreed readily (B) Was very doubtful (C) Kept silent (D) None of these Ans : (B) 3. On the way, she saw— (A) An unkind boy hitting a dog (B) A wounded dog lying on the road (C) A dog limping across the road (D) None of these Ans : (B) 4. Florence nursed the wounded dog because— (A) She wanted to be a nurse (B) Her father told her to do so (C) She felt pity for the dog (D) None of these Ans : (C) 5. The dog licked Florence all over to— (A) clean her body (B) express thanks (C) show its anger (D) None of these Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) In each of the following questions choose theoppositein meaning— 6.Condemned (A) Abandoned (B) Shifted (C) Acquiesced (D) Taken in Ans : (C) 7.Deny (A) Renounce (B) Confirm (C) Controvert (D) Disappear Ans : (B) 8.Disparage (A) Discredit (B) Perceive (C) Incline (D) Approve Ans : (D) Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In each of the following questions choose the same word in meaning— 9.Discretion (A) Judiciousness (B) Examine (C) Assent (D) Accede Ans : (A) 10.Dreadful (A) Propitious (B) Auspicious (C) Frightful (D) Estranged Ans : (C) 11.Exchanted (A) Attracted (B) Captivated (C) Influenced (D) Comprehended Ans : (B) Directions—(Q. 12 to 15) Choose the error and give its options from (A), (B), (C) and (D)— 12. It is not easy (A) / to beat out (B) / a swarm of (C) / wasps if they attack you. (D) Ans : (B) beat off 13. I would (A) / do this (B) / if (C) / I was allowed. (D) Ans : (D) were allowed 14. I asked (A) / him (B) / where (C) / did he live. (D) Ans : (D) ‘he lived’ in place of ‘did he live’. 15. The soldiers (A) / as well as (B) / the commanders was (C) / running away. (D) Ans : (C) ‘were’ in place of ‘was’ Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable options— 16. He hankers … money. (A) over (B) for (C) after (D) about Ans : (C) 17. It was with considerable …… that we heard the news of his rescue. (A) relieve (B) reliefs (C) relieves (D) relief Ans : (D) 18. He was accused … murder. (A) for (B) of (C) with (D) about Ans : (B) 19. He is looking … his lost book. (A) down (B) into (C) out (D) for Ans : (D) 20. Any activity which is prejudicial … law and order is punishable. (A) for (B) to (C) from (D) on Ans : (B) 21. Average error of some measurement is— (A) Arithmetic mean of the errors (B) Arithmetic mean of the errors, leaving aside the errors’ signs (C) Average of the squares of the errors (D) Geometric mean of the errors Ans : (B) 22. Number of significant figures in 0•00321 are— (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Ans : (B) 23. In significant figures, the difference of 2•57 metres and 2•4 metres is— (A) 0•17 m (B) 0•70 m (C) 0•2 m (D) 0•485 m Ans : (C) 24. E is the kinetic energy of an object, when it is projected at the maximum range of projection angle. At the highest point of its passage, its horizontal kinetic energy would be— (A) E (B) E/2 (C) E/3 (D) Zero Ans : (B) 25. If some particle rotates on a circular path, the force that maintains it rotating uniformly is called— (A) Centripetal force (B) Atomic force (C) Internal force (D) Gravitational force Ans : (A) 26. In a simple pendulum, isochronous length is equal to— (A) Distance between centre of oscillation and centre of gravity (B) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of gravity (C) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation (D) None of these Ans : (C) 27. Distance between the two continuous antinodes of a stationary wave is— (A) One wavelength (B) Half wavelength (C) Two wavelengths (D) None of these Ans : (B) 28. Two similar waves propagate in opposite directions in a medium— (A) Absorb sound energy (B) Create beats (C) Create stationary waves (D) Create resonance Ans : (C) 29. Unit of reactance is— (A) Ohm (B) mho (C) Farad (F) (D) Ampere (A) Ans : (A) 30. A hot-wire-ammeter measures the ……… of A.C. current— (A) Peak value (B) Average value (C) Root average square current (D) None of these Ans : (C) 31. In a p-n junction— (A) There are two semi-conductor junctions (B) There are two metal junctions (C) There is a metal semi-conductor junction (D) There is a metallic super conductor junction Ans : (A) 32. The particles obtained from thermionic emission are— (A) Protons (B) Electrons (C) Neutrons (D) None of these Ans : (B) 33. In P-type semi-conductor, the main current carriers are— (A) Electrons (B) Holes (C) Photons (D) Protons Ans : (B) 34. Dispersion of light is possible if and only if the medium is— (A) Water (B) Glass (C) Water or glass (D) Some transparent medium Ans : (D) 35. Colour of light is identified with the— (A) Speed of light in air (B) Frequency (C) Amplitude (D) None of these Ans : (B) 36. In a set of playing cards, there are 52 cards. From this set of cards, two cards are taken out, at random. The probability of both the cards to be ace will be— (A) 1/221 (B) 1/111 (C) 25/4 (D) None of these Ans : (A)

Cabinet Ministers of India 2014 (Latest) Mallikarjun Kharge Railways Oscar Fernandes Road and HighwaysLabour and Employment (Additional charge) Cabinet Ministers Dr. Manmohan Singh :Prime Minister, Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Planning, Department of Atomic Energy, Department of Space Beni Prasad Verma :Steel Jairam Ramesh :Rural Development V. Kishore Chandra Deo :Panchayati Raj, Tribal Affairs Palaniappan Chidambaram :Finance Mallikarjun Kharge :Railways Sharad Chandra Govindrao Pawar :Agriculture, Food Processing Industries A. K. Antony :Defence Sushil Kumar Sambhajirao Shinde :Home Affairs Salman Khurshid :External Affairs Jaipal Sudini Reddy :Science and Technology, Earth Sciences Ghulam Nabi Azad :Health and Family Welfare Dr. Farooq Abdullah :New and Renewable Energy Dr.(Shri) M. Veerappa Moily :Petroleum and Natural Gas;Environment and Forests(Additional charge) Vayalar Ravi :Overseas Indian Affairs Ajit Singh :Civil Aviation Dr. M. Mangapati Pallam Raju :Human Resource DevelopmentKapil Sibal :Communications and Information Technology, Law and Justice (Additional charge) Anand Sharma :Commerce and Industry K. S. Rao :Textiles Oscar Fernandes:Road Transport and Highways, Labour and Employment (Additional charge) Girija Vyas:Housing, Urban Development and Poverty AlleviationSmt. Chandresh Kumari Katoch :Culture G. K. Vasan :Shipping Kamal Nath :Urban Development, Parliamentary Affairs Harish Rawat :Water Resources Kumari Selja :Social Justice and Empowerment M. K. Alagiri :Chemicals and Fertilizers Praful Manoharbhai Patel :Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises Sriprakash Jaiswal :Coal K. Rahman Khan :Minority Affairs Dinsha J. Patel :Mines Ministers of State with Independent Charge Smt. Krishna Tirath :Women and Child Development Jitendra Singh :Youth Affairs and Sports Prof. Kuruppassery Varkey Thomas :Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Srikant Kumar Jena :Statistics and Programme Implementation Manish Tewari :Information and Broadcasting Paban Singh Ghatowar :Development of North Eastern Region Dr. K. Chiranjeevi :Tourism Bharatsinh Madhavsinh Solanki :Drinking Water and Sanitation Jyotiraditya Madhavrao Scindia :Power K.H. Muniyappa :Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Sachin Pilot :Corporate Affairs Ministers of State Paban Singh Ghatowar :Parliamentary Affairs ENS Nachiappan :Commerce and Industry S. Jagathrakshakan :Commerce and Industry Charan Das Mahant :Agriculture, Ministry of Food Processing Industries Suresh Kodikunnil :Labour and Employment Srikant Kumar Jena :Chemicals and Fertilizers Lalchand Kataria :Rural Development Smt. Deepa Dasmunsi :Urban Development Santosh Chowdhury :Health and Family Welfare S. Gandhiselvan :Health and Family Welfare D. Napoleon :Social Justice and Empowerment Manikrao Gavit :Social Justice and Empowerment K. C. Venugopal :Civil Aviation Jitin Prasada :Human Resource Development Dr. Shashi Tharoor :Human Resource Development Ramachandran Mullappally :Home Affairs V. Narayanasamy :Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Prime Minister Office Smt. Daggubati Purandeswari :Commerce and Industry Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury :Railways Kotla Jaya Surya Prakash Reddy :Railways E. Ahamed :External Affairs J. D. Seelam :Finance Namo Narain Meena :Finance Smt. Preneet Kaur :External Affairs S. S. Palanimanickam :Finance Sathyanarayana Sarvey :Road Transport and Highways Tariq Anwar :Agriculture, Ministry of Food Processing Industries Smt. Ranee Narah :Tribal Affairs Porika Balram Naik :Social Justice and Empowerment Abu Hasem Khan Choudhury :Health and Family Welfare Tushar Amarsinh Chaudhary :Road Transport and Highways Milind Murli Deora :Communications and Information Technology, Ministry of Shipping Dr. (Smt.) Kruparani Killi :Communications and Information Technology Pratik Prakashbapu Patil :Coal Ninong Ering :Minority Affairs Pradeep Kumar Jain Aditya :Rural Development Ratanjit Pratap Narain Singh :Home Affairs Rajeev Shukla :Planning, Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs Jitendra Singh :Defence Smt. Lakshmi Panabaka :Petroleum and Natural Gas

सामान्य ज्ञान ऑनलाइन प्रैक्टिस टेस्ट 1. भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक का एक मुख्य कार्य निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा है? (A) भारत की विदेश व्यापार नीति तय करना (B) केंद्रीय बज़ट तैयार कर संसद में पेश करना (C) भारत सरकार के बैंकर का कार्य करना (D) शेयर बाजारों पर कम्पनियों की लिस्टिंग की अनुमति देना (E) विश्व बैंक और IMF आदि में भारत के प्रतिनिधि की नियुक्ति उत्तर : (C) 2. भारत के दौरे पर आये हमीद कर्जाइ...................हैं। (A) अफगानिस्तान के प्रधानमंत्री (B) अफगानिस्तान के राष्ट्रपति (C) बंगलादेश के प्रधानमंत्री (D) बंगलादेश के राष्ट्रपति (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (B) 3. भारत के प्रधानमंत्री हाल ही में ‘UNGA’ को संबोधित करने न्यूयार्क गए थे। UNGA का पूरा रूप क्या है? (A) United Nation's General Assembly (B) Union of National General Assemblies (C) United Nation's General Association (D) Union of Nations General Association (E) United Nation's Global Association उत्तर : (A) 4. भारत की अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमा........से लगी हुई नहीं है। (A) म्यांमार (B) बंगलादेश (C) पाकिस्तान (D) विएतनाम (E) चीन उत्तर : (D) 5. वर्तमान में भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक का गवर्नर निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं? (A) डॉ. वाई. वी. रेड्डी (B) डॉ. बिमल जालान (C) डॉ. सुबीर गोकर्ण (D) डॉ. डी. सुब्बाराव (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (D) 6. बंगलादेश की मुद्रा निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी है? (A) दीनार (B) यूरो (C) डॉलर (D) रुपया (E) टका उत्तर : (E) 7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन पेट्रोलियम निर्यातक देशों के संगठन (OPEC) का सदस्य है? (A) बंगलादेश (B) USA (C) पाकिस्तान (D) लीबिया (E) चीन उत्तर : (D) 8. डॉ. ए.पी.जे. अब्दुल कलाम ने निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी किताब लिखी है? (A) दि कॉल ऑफ नेशन (B) माई स्टोरी (C) एज आई थिंक (D) माई प्रेसिडेंसियल इयर्स (E) इंडिया-माई-ड्रीम्स उत्तर : (E) 9. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय ख्याति प्राप्त प्रसिद्ध क्रिकेट खिलाड़ी निम्नलिखित में से कौन हैं? (A) बाइचुंग भूतिया (B) मायुखा जॉनी (C) पंकज अडवानी (D) वी.वी.एस. लक्ष्मण (E) विजेन्दर सिंह उत्तर : (D) 10. भारत की प्रसिद्ध फार्मा कंपनी निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी है? (A) लार्सन एण्ड टुब्रो (B) DLF लि. (C) विप्रो (D) रेनबक्सी (E) ग्रासिम इंडस्ट्रीज उत्तर : (D) 11. ‘SAFTA’.......सदस्यों के बीच व्यापार संबंधी करार है। (A) G - 8 (B) NATO (C) SAARC (D) G - 20 (E) BRICS उत्तर : (C) 12. श्री बी.सी. खंडूरी.........के वर्तमान मुख्यमंत्री हैं। (A) उत्तर प्रदेश (B) मध्य प्रदेश (C) उत्तराखंड (D) छत्तीसगढ़ (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (E) 13. कुछ प्राइवेट कंपनियां भारत में बैंक खोलना चाहती हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा संगठन उन्हें लाइसेंस जारी करेगा? (A) कंपनी रजिस्ट्रार (B) कारपोरेट कार्य मंत्रालय (C) भारतीय बैंक संघ (D) भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक (E) भारतीय प्रतिभूति और विनिमय बोर्ड उत्तर : (D) 14. भारत में सरकारी क्षेत्र के प्रमुख का पदनाम सामान्यतः........होता है। (A) प्रेसिडेंट (B) CAG (C) CVC (D) वाइस-प्रेसिडेंट (E) अध्यक्ष एवं प्रबंध निदेशक उत्तर : (E) 15. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी प्राइवेट बैंक की शाखाएं भारत में विभिन्न राज्यों में हैं? (A) बैंक ऑफ बड़ौदा (B) साउथ इंडियन बैंक (C) बैंक ऑफ इंडिया (D) बैंक ऑफ महाराष्ट्र (E) कार्पोरेशन बैंक उत्तर : (B) 16. जल संरक्षण की निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी पद्धति का प्रचलन भारत के बहुत से भागों में हैं? (A) वर्षा जल संचय (B) नहर (C) तालाब (D) ट्यूब वेल (E) ये सभी उत्तर : (C) 17. निम्नलिखित में से कौन जाना हुआ अर्थशास्त्री है? (A) एस. राधाकृष्णन (B) जे.सी. बोस (C) थोमस माल्थुस (D) जॉन मिल्टन (E) रवीन्द्रनाथ टागोर उत्तर : (C) 18. रालेगन सिद्धि .......का एक प्रसिद्ध गाँव है। (A) गुजरात (B) महाराष्ट्र (C) बिहार (D) उत्तर प्रदेश (E) कर्नाटक उत्तर : (B) 19. संगठन ‘BARC’ का संबंध.........के क्षेत्र से है। (A) परमाणु ऊर्जा (B) अंतरिक्ष अनुसंधान (C) बैंकिंग और वित्त (D) कृषि (E) खेलकूद उत्तर : (A) 20. निम्नलिखित में से किसका संबंध खेलकूद से है? (A) शाहिद कपूर (B) अपर्णा पोपट (C) बरखा दत्त (D) निर्मल वर्मा (E) मिलिंद देवरा उत्तर : (B) 21. निम्नलिखित में से क्या एक धातु नहीं है? (A) आयोडीन (B) ऐलुमिनियम (C) लोहा (D) तांबा (E) जिंक उत्तर : (A) 22. निम्नलिखित में से क्या तिलहन नहीं है? (A) एरंड (B) धान (C) सरसों (D) मूंगफली (E) रेपसीड उत्तर : (B) 23. निम्नलिखित में से क्या एक देश का नाम है? (A) दलासी (B) पोर्तुगीस (C) फ्रेंच (D) जार्जिया (E) डोबरा उत्तर : (D) 24. भारत सरकार द्वारा शुरू की गई एक रोजगार निर्माण योजना निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी है? (A) कुटीर ज्योति (B) भारत निर्माण (C) निर्मल ग्राम (D) मनरेगा (E) आशा उत्तर : (D) 25. भारत में शाखाओं और कार्यालयों वाला एक विदेशी बैंक निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा है? (A) एक्सिस बैंक (B) सिंडीकेट बैंक (C) ICICI बैंक (D) बार्कलैस (E) फेडरल बैंक उत्तर : (D) 26. साहित्य के क्षेत्र में उत्कृष्टता के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा पुरस्कार दिया जाता है? (A) पुलित्जर पुरस्कार (B) कलिंग पुरस्कार (C) कालिदास सम्मान (D) अशोक चक्र (E) कीर्ति चक्र उत्तर : (A) 27. निम्नलिखित में से किस बैंक का मुख्यालय कोलकाता में है? (A) बैंक ऑफ इंडिया (B) सेंट्रल बैंक ऑफ इंडिया (C) इलाहाबाद बैंक (D) सिंडीकेट बैंक (E) पंजाब नेशनल बैंक उत्तर : (C) 28. पद ‘e-banking’ में अक्षर ‘e’ क्या दर्शाता है? (A) essential (B) economic (C) electronic (D) expansion (E) exclusive उत्तर : (C) 29. बैंकिंग/वित्त के विश्व में निम्नलिखित में से किस पद का प्रयोग नहीं है? (A) हेमिस्फीयर (B) रिसीवेबल (C) अल्टर्ड चेक (D) लायाबिलिटी (E) डेबिट कार्ड उत्तर : (A) 30. खेलकूद में निम्नलिखित में से किस पद का प्रयोग होता है? (A) एप्रिसियेशन (B) फैक्टर (C) बैक स्पिन (D) ओवर दि काउंटर (E) फाइन ट्यूनिंग उत्तर : (C) 31. निम्नलिखित में से किस ट्रोफी/कप का संबंध फुटबॉल के खेल से है? (A) डेविस कप (B) आगा खान कप (C) रणजी ट्रोपी (D) विंबलडन ट्रॉफी (E) मर्डेका कप उत्तर : (E) 32. श्री व्लादिमीर पुतिन.............के वर्तमान राष्ट्रपति हैं। (A) जर्मनी (B) रूस (C) इटली (D) पुर्तगाल (E) फ्रांस उत्तर : (B) 33. निम्नलिखित में से क्या एक सब्जी है? (A) सेब (B) संतरा (C) अमरूद (D) आलू (E) अंगूर उत्तर : (D) 34. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय क्रिकेट मैच में प्रत्येक टीम में कितने खिलाड़ी शामिल किए जाते हैं? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (E) 35. निम्नलिखित में से कौन एक लेखक नहीं है? (A) दीपिका पदुकोण (B) चेतन भगत (C) विक्रम सेठ (D) विक्रम चंद्र (E) किरण देसाई उत्तर : (A) 36. वर्तमान रिपो दर क्या है? (A) 6% (B) 7% (C) 7.5% (D) 8% (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (E) 37. हाल ही में शब्बीर अली को ध्यानचंद पुरस्कार दिया गया था। उसका संबंध..........के खेल से है। (A) फुटबॉल (B) बैडमिंटन (C) लॉन टेनिस (D) क्रिकेट (E) हॉकी उत्तर : (A) 38. मणिपुर की राजधानी निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी है? (A) गुवाहाटी (B) दिसपुर (C) इटानगर (D) कोहिमा (E) इम्फाल उत्तर : (E) 39. भारतीय वायुसेना दिवस...........को मनाया जाता है। (A) 29 अक्टूबर (B) 19 अक्टूबर (C) 9 नवंबर (D) 19 नवंबर (E) 8 अक्टूबर उत्तर : (E) 40. सामान्यतः हम बैंक में........जैसा प्रभाग/विभाग नहीं देखते हैं। (A) ऋण प्रभाग (B) भुगतान प्रभाग (C) रसीद (D) ग्राहक संबंध (E) इंटेन्सिव केयर यूनिट उत्तर : (E) 41. किस प्रकार की मिट्टी को कपास की मिट्टी (cotton soil) कहते हैं क्योंकि यह कपास उगाने के लिए अच्छी होती है? (A) एलुवियल मिट्टी (B) लाल मिट्टी (C) रेगुर मिट्टी (D) लैटराइट मिट्टी (E) रेत उत्तर : (C) 42. भारत की एक प्रमुख नदी निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी है? (A) कोंगो (B) गोदावरी (C) वोल्गा (D) एमेजोन (E) नाइल उत्तर : (B) 43. हर वर्ष........को ‘विश्व ओजोन दिवस’ मनाया जाता है। (A) 10 अक्टूबर (B) 16 सितंबर (C) 16 नवंबर (D) 10 नंवबर (E) 15 दिसंबर उत्तर : (B) 44. स्टीव जॉब्स का संबंध..........के क्षेत्र से था। (A) कंप्यूटर (B) संगीत (C) फिल्म (D) खेलकूद (E) राजनीति उत्तर : (A) 45. साहित्य में नोबेल पुरस्कार पाने वाला टोमस ट्रांस्ट्रोमर निम्नलिखित में से किस भाषा में लिखता है? (A) रशियन (B) इटालियन (C) स्वीडिश (D) फ्रेंच (E) जर्मन उत्तर : (C) 46. कौनसा देश G-8 का सदस्य नहीं है? (A) कनाडा (B) भारत (C) फ्रांस (D) जर्मनी (E) जापान उत्तर : (B) 47. ग्रामीण गरीबों को बैंकिंग सेवाएं देने और वित्तीय समावेशन की दिशा में एक प्रयास के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी योजना आरंभ की गई है? (A) स्वाभिमान (B) ASHA (C) स्वावलंबन (D) भारत निर्माण (D) जागो ग्राहक जागो उत्तर : (A) 48. निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत का वर्तमान उपराष्ट्रपति है? (A) श्री एल.के. अडवाणी (B) श्री एम. हमीद अन्सारी (C) श्री सईद नकवी (D) श्री मुख्तार अब्बास नकवी (E) इनमें से कोई नहीं उत्तर : (B) 49. जापान की मुद्रा कौनसी है? (A) युआन (B) दीनार (C) यूरो (D) डॉलर (E) येन उत्तर : (E) 50. निम्नलिखित में से किस देश ने हॉकी में एशियन चेंपियन्स ट्रॉफी जीती है जिसके फाइनल सितंबर 2011 में खेले गए थे? (A) पाकिस्तान (B) चीन (C) भारत (D) ईरान (E) मलेशिया उत्तर : (C)

TET PAPER English Language Solved Paper 1. Which sentence has no mistake ? (A) The man thought he was in the desert. (B) The man thought was on the desert (C) The man is thinking he was on the desert now (D) The man thought he was in the dessert 2. Which sentence has an error ? (A) The bus went down the mountain road slowly (B) The train goes swiftly through the tunnels (C) The ship sails under the water smoothly (D) The airplane flies high in the sky 3. The letters in steam can be rearranged to make which word meaning friends ? (A) meats (B) mates (C) stame (D) astem 4. Choose the word closest in sound to the italicized word. The tennis court was painted with a..........of pain. (A) quote (B) coyote (C) coat (D) cot 5. The opposite of the word ‘dear’ is. (A) expensive (B) cheap (C) darling (D) sweet 6. Which word means ‘the sound goats make’ ? (A) Blate (B) Bleat (C) Balet (D) Ablet 7. According to Piaget there are four major cognitive stages. Which are the correct stages ? (A) Sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operations and formal operations (B) Sensorimotor, post-operational, concrete operations and formal operations (C) Emotional, pre-operational, concrete operations and formal operations (D) Sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete operations and tangible operations 8. Which of the following statements is correct ? (A) Piaget—language is a symptom of existing cognitive structures of the children (B) Bruner—language is crucial for mental development and is not merely a symptom of underlying cognitive structures. (C) Chomsky—language is the result of our uniquely human bioogical inheritance called LAD. (D) Skinner—language acquisition in terms of learning principles or more particularly his operant conditioning techniques. 9. Experiential Learning refers to. (A) experience as the source of learning (B) learning takes place before experiencing something (C) learning takes place before experience (D) learning is always possible without experience. 10. Through close test.........is tested. (A) extrapolative skills (B) creative skills (C) listening skills (D) spelling 11. The concept of pronunciation includes (A) sounds, vocabulary and structure (B) sounds, stress, rhythm and intonation (C) sounds, transcription and spelling (D) None of these 12. intensive reading stands for. (A) reading the text in parts or minutest details (B) reading for pleasure (C) reading for enrichment of vocabulary (D) reading for developing literary sensitivity 13. Nursery rhymes at the primary level are taught to. (A) develop vocabulary (B) make class more meaningful (C) introduce new sentences (D) familiarize with the sounds 14. CCE deals with the performance of the learners in. (A) maths and languages (B) science and other subjects (C) all the curricular subjects and literary activities (D) scholastic and scholastic activities 15. English in India is treated as. (A) classical language (B) western language (C) associate official (D) colonial language 16. Semantics deals with. (A) sounds (B) structure (C) legends (D) words and their meanings Directions :(Question Nos. 17- 20) Read the information on hot water springs and answer the question. Why Does Hot Water Come out of the Ground ? Water gushing from a crack in the ground is called a spring. If the water comes from deep down in the ground, it is hot. This is because the interior of the Earth is hot. Rainwater that has gone down the cracks deep into the Earth becomes heated. The hot water is then forced up out of the ground under pressure. Some hot springs come from volcanic rock nearer the surface. These are called geysers. Hot water and steam is forced out of a tubular crack in the ground and springs out quite high in the air. There is a geyser in Yellowstone National Park, USA, called Old Faithful. This is because it erupts every 65 minutes without fail. If reaches a height of 50 meters. 17. The passage describes. (A) how to get hot water from the ground (B) how geysers are manu-factured (C) how hot water springs are formed (D) how the Earth heats up the surface 18. The word in the passage whose meaning is opposite to ‘outer’ is. (A) inside (B) internal (C) interior (D) inwards 19. According to the passage, ‘geysers’ are. (A) instruments found in the bathroom to heat water (B) hot springs pushing out hot water and steam (C) tubular cracks in the ground (D) big machines inside the Earth 20. The spring in Yellowstone national Park gets its name Old Faithful because. (A) the spring forces hot water out very regularly (B) the spring is as faithful as a dog (C) the spring reaches a height of 50 metres (D) the spring is very old. 21. I had the opportunity........(see) a race brid in Ranganathitu. (A) of see (B) to seeing (C) of seeing (D) seeing 22. The ozone layer prevents ultraviolet rays.............the earth's atmosphere. (A) entering into (B) from entering (C) of entering (D)entering throught 23. Which punctuation marks should go at the end of this sentence ? (A) ? (B) l (C) ! (D) " 24. Which word is a noun ? (A) Brid (B) Sing (C) Easy (D) Blunt 25. Which set of words is arranged in the correct alphabetical order ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 26. Learners make pronunciation errors because. (A) they do not make extraordinary effort (B) they are not exposed to language lab (C) a particular sound may not exist in the mother-tongue (D) all of these 27. Monophthong is a type of. (A) vowel (B) consonant (C) morpheme (D) phoneme 28. Brainstorming technique is useful for developing. (A) listening skills (B) grammatical concepts (C) vocabulary (D) writing skills 29. Dictation tests. (A) vocabulary (B) spelling only (C) handwriting (D) aural recognition and spelling 30. Grammar is defined as. (A) study of words and sentences (B) the way word's are put together (C) the study of words and their meaning (D) science of studying lexical items. Answers: 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B)

शांति का नोबेल पाने वाले व्यक्तियो की औसत आयु 62 साल है।

Multi Tasking Staff Exam 2013 General Knowledge Solved Paper 1. Constitution of India came into force in– (A) 1956 (B) 1950 (C) 1949 (D) 1951 Ans : (B) 2. Cold War refers to– (A) ideological rivalry between Capitalist and Communist world (B) tension between Superpowers (C) tension between East and West (D) All of the above Ans : (D) 3. Select the High Yielding Varieties of seed-crops developed under Green Revolution in India– (A) Maize, Black-gram, Jowar, Coffee and Tea (B) Rice, Wheat, Jowar, Bajra and Maize (C) Wheat, Rice, Sugarcane, Pulses and Maize (D) Rice, Wheat, Pulses, Oil seeds and Sugarcane Ans : (B) 4. In which year did Amartya Kumar Sen receive the Nobel Prize in Economics? (A) 1995 (B) 2000 (C) 1990 (D) 1998 Ans : (D) 5. The worldwide Great Depression took place in– (A) 1929 (B) 1928 (C) 1930 (D) 1936 Ans : (C) 6. India is the largest producer and consumer of– (A) Tea (B) Coffee (C) Sugar (D) Paddy Ans : (A) 7. A camera in the hands of a professional photographer is a ……….good. (A) Intermediary (B) Consumer (C) Capital (D) Free Ans : (C) 8. Which among the following movements was not led by Mahatma Gandhi ? (A) Swadeshi Movement (B) Non-Cooperation Movement (C) Civil Disobedience Movement (D) Quit India Movement Ans : (A) 9. Name the Commander of the Arab army who conquered Sindh– (A) Qutbuddin Aibak (B) Allauddin Khilji (C) Muhammad bin Qasim (D) Al Hazzaz Ans : (C) 10. Who was the chairperson of the Chinese Communist Party at the time of liberation of China ? (A) Deng Xiaoping (B) Mao Zedong (C) Liu Shaoqi (D) Zhou En-lai Ans : (B) 11. Who was regarded by Gandhiji as his political Guru ? (A) Bipin Chandra Pal (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (D) Lala Lajpat Rai Ans : (C) 12. Which one of the following is not an All India Service ? (A) Indian Forest Service (B) Indian Administrative Service (C) Indian Police Service (D) Indian Foreign Service Ans : (D) 13. In which session of the Indian National Congress was the “Poorna Swaraj” resolution adopted ? (A) Belgaum Session in 1924 (B) Lahore Session in 1929 (C) Karachi Session in 1931 (D) Lucknow Session in 1916 Ans : (B) 14. The school of arts developed during the Kushan Period with the mixture of Indian and Greek style is known as– (A) Persian art (B) Gandhara art (C) Mughal art (D) Kushan art Ans : (B) 15. Where was Christopher Columbus from ? (A) Genoa (B) Spain (C) Portugal (D) Venice Ans : (A) 16. Which of the following micro-organisms is used in milk curdling ? (A) Leuconostoc (B) Bacillus (C) Lactobacillus (D) Acetobacter Ans : (C) 17. Which of the following is present in Chlorophyll molecule ? (A) Mg (B) Fe (C) K (D) Mn Ans : (A) 18. The busiest rail section in respect to goods transportation is– (A) Kolkata – Chennai section (B) Delhi– Mumbai section (C) Mumbai – Chennai section (D) Delhi – Kolkata section Ans : (D) 19. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through– (A) Nepal (B) Bangladesh (C) China (D) Myanmar Ans : (A) 20. The country in East Asia which is most conspicuous for its decreasing population growth since 1981 is– (A) Thailand (B) China (C) Japan (D) South Korea Ans : (B) 21. The Sethusamudram Ship Canal Project (SSCP) is supposed to reduce the distance between Chennai and Tuticorin by………. nautical miles. (A) 434 (B) 243 (C) 305 (D) 361 Ans : (A) 22. Cities with population from one to five million are called– (A) Million City (B) Metropolitan (C) Cosmopolitan (D) Conurbation Ans : (B) 23. Master copy of genetic information is– (A) r-RNA (B) m-RNA (C) DNA (D) Nucleus Ans : (C) 24. Contraceptive pills in the market contain– (A) Herbicides (B) Antibiotics (C) Steroid-hormones (D) Inorganic compounds Ans : (C) 25. Nematocysts are present in– (A) Ascaris (B) Centipede (C) Sea anemone (D) Starfish Ans : (C) 26. Which one out of the following helps in burning ? (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitrogen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen Ans : (D) 27. In organic compounds, nitrogen is estimated by– (A) Vietor-Meyer’s method (B) Liebig’s method (C) Dumas’ method (D) Carius method Ans : (C) 28. When a body falls from an aeroplane, there is increase in its– (A) Mass (B) Acceleration (C) Potential energy (D) Kinetic energy Ans : (D) 29. What does ‘Ozone Layer’ absorb? (A) Ultraviolet rays (B) X-rays (C) y-rays (D) Infrared rays Ans : (A) 30. In a water lifting electric pump, we convert– (A) Kinetic energy into Electrical energy (B) Kinetic energy into Potential energy (C) Electrical energy into Kinetic energy (D) Electrical energy into Potential energy Ans : (C) 31. The type of mirror used in automobiles to see the traffic on the rear side is– (A) Plano-Convex (B) Plane (C) Convex (D) Concave Ans : (C) 32. In MS- Excel, ……….. provide a visual representation of the values in a worksheet. (A) Formulae (B) Templates (C) Views (D) Charts Ans : (D) 33. Speed of processor chip is measured in– (A) MHz (B) Bits/second (C) Bytes/second (D) Mbps Ans : (A) 34. Which command is not used to switch off the computer ? (A) Log off (B) Shut Down (C) Hibernate (D) Turn off Ans : (A) 35. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with– (A) Building common food stock to save human beings from any natural disaster (B) International Trade (C) Deep Sea Oil and Mineral Exploration (D) Clean Environment and Climate Change Ans : (D) 36. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the news recently– (A) He became Secretary-General of SAARC (B) He became a member of U.N. Human Rights Council (C) He was elected to the International Court of Justice (D) He became Director-General of World Trade Organisation Ans : (C) 37. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as– (A) non-luminous zone (B) luminous zone (C) dark zone (D) blue zone Ans : (A) 38. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength ? (A) α-rays (B) γ-rays (C) β-rays (D) X-rays Ans : (B) 39. The earth is a– (A) non-absorber of heat (B) good absorber and good radiator of heat (C) bad absorber and bad radiator of heat (D) good reflector of heat Ans : (C) 40. BCG vaccination is given at the age of– (A) 10 years (B) Newborn (C) Within 15 days (D) 2-3 years Ans : (B) 41. The International Year of Biodiversity was– (A) 1999(B) 2006 (C) 2010 (D) 1996 Ans : (C) 42. Which of the following atmospheric gases constitute greenhouse gases? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Nitrogen 3. Nitrous oxide 4. Water vapour Select the correct answer using the codes given below– (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 43. Which sportsperson announced recently that he would not contest charges of doping against US Anti-Doping Agency ? (A) Bradley Wiggins (B) Carl Lewis (C) Lance Armstrong (D) George Hincapie Ans : (C) 44. Who is the winner of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (2011) ? (A) Saina Nehwal (B) Sachin Tendulkar (C) M. S. Dhoni (D) Gagan Narang Ans : (D) 45. ‘White Revolution’ is related to– (A) Milk production (B) Flood control (C) Fish production (D) Wheat production Ans : (A) 46. Who proposed the adage “Survival of the fittest”? (A) William (B) Huxley (C) Lamarck (D) Darwin Ans : (D) 47. Who is the author of the book ‘Beyond the Lines : An Autobiography’ ? (A) General J. J. Singh (B) Kuldip Nayar (C) Ray Bradbury (D) Khushwant Singh Ans : (B) 48. Which of the following Indian States has the largest concentration of Scheduled Tribes population ? (A) Assam (B) Bihar (C) Odisha (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (D) 49. Sanjukta Panigrahi was famous for the dance– (A) Kathak (B) Manipuri (C) Odissi (D) Bharatnatyam Ans : (C) 50. Which Indian batsman announced his retirement from International Cricket on August 18, 2012 ? (A) Saurav Ganguly (B) Sachin Tendulkar (C) V.V.S. Laxman (D) Virat Kohli Ans : (C)

MP PSC (Pre) Indian History Exam Solved Paper 2010 Madhya Pradesh P.S.C. (Pre.) Exam., 2010(Held on 20-2-2011) Indian History : Solved Paper 1. Where is the Indus Civilization city Lothal ? (A) Gujarat (B) Rajasthan (C) Punjab (D) Haryana Ans : (A) 2. Mohenjo Daro is situated in— (A) Sindh Province of Pakistan (B) Gujarat (C) Punjab (D) Afghanistan Ans : (A) 3. Which deity wasnotworshipped by the Vedic Aryans ? (A) Indra (B) Marut (C) Varun (D) Pashupati Ans : (D) 4. The Vedanga consists of the— (A) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish (B) Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish (C) Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish (D) Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda Ans : (A) 5. The earliest available work of the Sangam Tamils is— (A) Pattinappalai (B) Tirumurugarruppadai (C) Maduraikanchi (D) Tolkappiyam Ans : (D) 6. The Mahavir belonged to the clan— (A) Kalams (B) Bhaggas (C) Lichhivis (D) Bulis Ans : (C) 7. The Jain text which contains the biographies of the Tirthankaras is known as— (A) Bhagwatisutra (B) Uvasagadasao (C) Adi Purana (D) Kalpasutra Ans : (D) 8. The first Buddhist Sangeeti (conference) was held at— (A) Vaishali (B) Pataliputra (C) Rajgriha (D) Ujjain Ans : (C) 9. The propounder of the Madhyamika Philosophy was— (A) Bhadrabahu (B) Parshwanath (C) Sheelbhadra (D) Nagarjuna Ans : (D) 10. The rules of Buddhist monistic life are laid down, primarily, in— (A) Tripitaka (B) Vinayapitaka (C) Abhidhammapitaka (D) Suttapitaka Ans : (B) 11. The battle between Alexander and Porus took place on the bank of river— (A) Sutlej (B) Ravi (C) Jhelum (D) Ganga Ans : (C) 12. The first Persian ruler who occupied part of Indian Territory was— (A) Cyrus (B) Darius I (C) Cambyses (D) Xerxes Ans : (B) 13. Alexander remained in India for— (A) 29 months (B) 39 months (C) 19 months (D) 10 months Ans : (C) 14. Gedrosia corresponds to modern— (A) Baluchistan (B) Lahore (C) Multan (D) Peshawar Ans : (A) 15. Which of the following statements isnottrue ? (A) Formal accession of Asoka was very probably delayed (B) The fifth rock edict proves the existence of Harems of Asoka’s brothers (C) Asoka held the viceroyalty of Taxila and Ujjain in the reign of Bindusara (D) Asoka was the younger brother of Bindusara Ans : (D) 16. The nirvasita (excluded) and anirvasita (not excluded) Shudras have been referred to— (A) in the Nirukta of Yaska (B) in the Ashtadhyayi of Panini (C) in the Arthashastra of Kautilya (D) None of the above Ans : (D) 17. The first translator of Mahabharata into Tamil was— (A) Perundevanar (B) Kamban (C) Sundaramurthi (D) Bharavi Ans : (A) 18 Which one of the following inscriptions of Asoka refers to the grant of concession in land revenue to a village ? (A) Lumbini Pillar edict (B) Sarnath Pillar edict (C) Girnar Rock edict (D) Sanchi Pillar edict Ans : (A) 19. Who of the following wasnota patron of Jainism ? (A) Bimbisara (B) Kharvela (C) Kanishka (D) Chandragupta Maurya Ans : (A) 20. Who was the ambassador in the Court of Bindusara ? (A) Machiavelli (B) Megasthenes (C) Deimachus (D) Antiochus I Ans : (C) 21. To propagate his Dhamma, Asoka used the services of— (A) Rajukas (B) Pradeshikas (C) Yuktas (D) All of these Ans : (D) 22. The last king of Mauryan empire was— (A) Devavarman (B) Brihadrath (C) Kunala (D) Shalishuk Ans : (B) 23. The historian Kalhan was— (A) Buddhist (B) Brahmin (C) Jain (D) None of these Ans : (B) 24 Founder of the Satvahana dynasty was— (A) Shatkarni I (B) Simuka (C) Shatkarni II (D) Rudradaman I Ans : (B) 25. Yen-Kao-Chen is generally known as— (A) Kadphises I (B) Kadphises II (C) Kanishka (D) Vasishka Ans : (B) 26. The writer of the ‘Kalpasutra’ was— (A) Simuka (B) Panini (C) Bhadrabahu (D) Patanjali Ans : (C) 27. The writer of the ‘Brihatkatha’ was— (A) Dattamitra (B) Gudadhya (C) Bhadrabahu (D) Sarvavarman Ans : (B) 28. According to tradition Kashyapa Matanga introduced Buddhism to— (A) China (B) Kashmir (C) Ceylon (D) Gandhar Ans : (A) 29. Which one of the following indicates the correct chronological order of era in India ? (A) Gupta—Harsha—Vikram—Shaka (B) Vikram—Harsha—Gupta—Shaka (C) Gupta—Shaka—Vikram—Harsha (D) Vikram—Shaka—Gupta—Harsha Ans : (D) 30. During Pre-Gupta period what was Kahapan ? (A) An office (B) A luxury item (C) A coin (D) A port Ans : (C) 31. Which port was known to the author of “Periplus of the Erithrian Sea” as Padouke ? (A) Tamralipti (B) Arikmedu (C) Broach (D) Cochin Ans : (B) 32 Chandragupta-II married his daughter Prabhavati to— (A) Rudrasena-I (B) Rudrasena-II (C) Agnimitra (D) Nagsena Ans : (B) 33. Which of the following law givers of the post-Gupta period declared that Sudras were not slaves by nature ? (A) Medhatithi (B) Vigynaeshwar (C) Narad (D) Jimutwahan Ans : (A) 34. Who was the founder of Gahadwala dynasty who made Kannauj the main centre of his power ? (A) Jaichandra (B) Vijaychandra (C) Chandradev (D) Govind Ans : (C) 35. Which of the following Rashtrakut kings defeated the Pratihar ruler Nagabhatta I ? (A) Indra II (B) Krishna III (C) Amoghvarsha I (D) Govind III Ans : (D) 36. Who among the following rulers patronized Jayadev, the composer of ‘Geetgovinda’ ? (A) Laxman Sen (B) Kharvel (C) Kumarpala (D) Shashank Ans : (A) 37. Who out of the following ousted Jainism from Mysore ? (A) Naynars (B) Lingayats (C) Alwars (D) Shankaracharya Ans : (D) 38. Which was the word used for the royal military troops of the Cholas ? (A) Kattupaddi (B) Kaikkolar (C) Bhrtaka (D) Kadgham Ans : (B) 39. The Chola rulers undertook extensive land survey to ascertain— (A) Right of ownership (B) Government’s share of revenue (C) Production of grains (D) Limit of the sources of irrigation Ans : (B) 40. Which of the following taxes of Chola period was for educational purpose ? (A) Devadana (B) Salabhoga (C) Brahmadeva (D) Sarvamanya Ans : (A) 41. The writer of Tabqat-i-Nasiri was— (A) Barani (B) Nizamuddin (C) Minhaj-us-Siraj (D) Isami Ans : (C) 42. The following works were written by Ziauddin Barani— (A) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Qiranussadain (B) Fatwa-i-Jahandari and Ashiqa (C) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari (D) Futuhus-salatin and Tarikhi-Firozshahi Ans : (C) 43. Which of the following books were written by Amir Khusro ? (A) Ashiqa, Qiranussadain, Khazain-ul-Futuh (B) Qiranussadain, Ashiqa, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi (C) Khazainul Futuh, Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Ashiqa (D) Tarikh-i-Mubarakshahi, Nuh-i-Siphr, Ashiqa Ans : (A) 44. Who wrote ‘Qanun-i-Humayuni’ ? (A) Gulbadan Begum (B) Yahya (C) Khwandmir (D) Nizamuddin Ans : (C) 45. Which of the following books was written by Ishwardas Nagar ? (A) Futuhat-i-Alamgiri (B) Bir Binod (C) Chhatra Prakash (D) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri Ans : (A) 46. With whom of the following Muhammad Ghori aligned against Khusrau Shah ? (A) King of Gujarat (B) King of Multan (C) King of Peshawar (D) King of Jammu Ans : (D) 47. At the time of Muhammad Ghori’s invasion against Prithviraj Chauhan who of the following ruled Kannauj ? (A) The Chandellas (B) The Pratihars (C) The Palas (D) The Gahadwalas Ans : (D) 48. Who of the following contested with Qutubuddin Aibak for Punjab ? (A) Ikhtiyaruddin (B) Tajuddin Yaldauz (C) Nasiruddin Qubacha (D) None of these Ans : (B) 49. Who were the Nav Musalmans of the following ? (A) Descendants of Mongols who settled near Delhi and embraced Islam (B) Hindu converts to Islam (C) Khalji Sultans (D) Ilbari Sultans Ans : (A) 50. Who was appointed as ambassador to China during the time of Mohammad bin Tughlaq ? (A) Barbosa (B) Barani (C) Ibn Batutah (D) Abdur Razzak Ans : (C) 51. Bahlul Lodi’s significant achievement was the successful war against the underwritten kingdom of— (A) Mewat (B) Jaunpur (C) Chandwar (D) Sambhal Ans : (B) 52. Rulers of which kingdom built Atala Masjid and Lal Darwaza Masjid ? (A) Bengal (B) Khandesh (C) Malwa (D) Jaunpur Ans : (D) 53. Rai Bharmal wrote on Muslim Literary traditions in the following language— (A) Persian (B) Sanskrit (C) Arabic (D) Turkish Ans : (A) 54. ‘Chaitanya Charitamrita’ was authored by— (A) Wasweshwara (B) Madhav (C) Ramanand (D) Krishnadas Kaviraj Ans : (D) 55. Who succeeded Nizamuddin Aulia ? (A) Sheikh Farid (B) Sheikh Nasiruddin Chiraghi-Delhi (C) Sheikh Salim Chishti (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 56. Raidas, Sena and Kabir were the followers of— (A) Namdeo (B) Ramanuj (C) Vallabhacharya (D) Ramanand Ans : (D) 57. When was Vijayanagar visited by Abdurrajjak ? (A) 1443 (B) 1433 (C) 1423 (D) 1427 Ans : (A) 58. Tuluva dynasty was founded by— (A) Narasa Nasyaka (B) Immadi Narsimha (C) Vir Narsimha (D) None of these Ans : (C) 59. Who founded the independent Bahamani kingdom in South India ? (A) Abu Muzaffar Alauddin Bahmanshah (B) Mujahid Shah (C) Muhammad Shah I (D) Adil Shah Ans : (A) 60. Who founded the independent Muslim kingdom of Malwa ? (A) Hoshangshah (B) Mahmudshah (C) Nasiruddin (D) Dilawarkhan Ans : (D) 61. Babur had three wives. Which one of the following was not his wife ? (A) Maham (B) Gulrus (C) Gulbadan (D) Dilbar Ans : (C) 62. Who was Mehdi Khwaza ? (A) Ruler of Bihar (B) Prime Minister of Ibrahim Lodi (C) Brother-in-law of Humayun (D) Brother of Babur Ans : (C) 63. Humayun ascended the throne at Agra on— (A) 7th January 1530 (B) 29th December 1530 (C) 23rd September 1530 (D) 16th February 1530 Ans : (B) 64. Which of the following statements istrueof the Sher Shah Suri ? (A) He was a fanatic Muslim (B) He was a staunch Muslim but not a fanatic (C) He was a staunch Muslim and ill-treated Hindus (D) He was intolerant towards other religions Ans : (B) 65. Which out of the following wasnotone of the purposes of ‘Sarais’ built during Sher Shah ? (A) Post-house (B) For travellers (C) For officers (D) Warehouse for arms and ammunition Ans : (D) 66. Who was not appointed as Vazir during Akbar’s reign ? (A) Bahadurkhan Uzbeg (B) Shamsuddin Atkakhan (C) Todarmal (D) Nizamuddin Khalifa Ans : (A) 67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect ? (A) Akbar—Ralph Fich (B) Darashikoh—Manucci (C) Jahangir—Sir Thomas Roe (D) Shah Jahan—Jourdon Ans : (D) 68. Which of the following statements is true of Akbar’s policy towards the Hindus ? (A) He abolished the pilgrim tax but not the Jaziya (B) He abolished the Jaziya, but not the pilgrim tax (C) He abolished both the Jaziya and the pilgrim tax (D) He neither abolished the pilgrim tax nor the Jaziya Ans : (C) 69 Who was the author of ‘Nuskhai-Dilkusha’ ? (A) Khafi Khan (B) Murshidkuli Khan (C) Abul Fazl (D) Bhimsen Burhanpuri Ans : (D) 70. Guru Govind Singh was killed in 1708 at— (A) Amritsar (B) Keeratpur (C) Nanded (D) Anandpur Ans : (C) 71. Mir Sayyed Ali and Abdusamad were the court painter during the time of— (A) Humayun, Akbar (B) Akbar, Jahangir (C) Jahangir, Shah Jahan (D) Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb Ans : (A) 72. Which of the following elements wasnotfound in Akbar’s architecture ? (A) Use of red sandstone (B) Hindu elements (C) Foliated arches (D) Charbagh surrounding the tombs Ans : (C) 73. Who composed ‘Ganga Lahri’ ? (A) Tulsidas (B) Surdas (C) Panditraj Jagannath (D) Haridasa Ans : (C) 74. Which of the following was not a silver coin during Akbar ? (A) Jalal (B) Dam (C) Darab (D) Pandau Ans : (B) 75. Which of the following revolts had agrarian causes at its root ? (A) Rajput revolt (B) Satnami and Jat revolt (C) Sikh revolt (D) Maratha revolt Ans : (B) 76. From whom Shahji received the jagir of Poona ? (A) Mughals (B) Adilshah (C) Nizamshahi (D) Portuguese Ans : (B) 77. What is ‘Mokasa’ ? (A) Jagir (B) Religious practice (C) Cavalry (D) Religious endowment Ans : (A) 78. Who was not alive at the time of Shivaji’s Coronation ? (A) Ganga Bhatt (B) Tukaram (C) Ramdas (D) Dadaji Konddeva Ans : (D) 79. Which of the following Peshwas is connected with the treaty of Sagola ? (A) Balaji Bajirao (B) Balaji Vishwanath (C) Bajirao I (D) Bajirao II Ans : (A) 80. In which year Ahilyabai Holkar breathed her last ? (A) 1792 (B) 1793 (C) 1794 (D) 1795 Ans : (D) 81. The French East India Company was formed in— (A) 1664 AD (B) 1660 AD (C) 1656 AD (D) 1680 AD Ans : (A) 82. La Bourdonnais was the Governor of— (A) Madras (B) Pondicherry (C) Mauritius (D) None of these Ans : (B) 83. Mir Kasim removed his court from Calcutta to— (A) Patna (B) Dacca (C) Monghir (D) Purnea Ans : (C) 84. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between— (A) English and the French (B) English and the Marathas (C) English and the Nawab of Carnatic (D) English and Hyderali Ans : (A) 85. At the battle of Biddera the English crushed the power of— (A) French (B) Dutch (C) Portuguese (D) Danes Ans : (B) 86. The Treaty of Surat was concluded by the British with the following Maratha chief— (A) Narayan Rao (B) Madhav Rao (C) Nana Phadnvis (D) Raghoba Ans : (D) 87. The triple alliance against Tipu was formed by Cornwallis consisted of the following— (A) The English, Nizam and the Marathas (B) The English, Nizam and Awadh (C) The English, Nizam and Carnatic (D) The English, Marathas and Carnatic Ans : (A) 88. In the Second Sikh War the decisive battle was fought at— (A) Chilianwala (B) Peshawar (C) Gujarat (D) Multan Ans : (C) 89. In the Third Maratha War, the English defeated Peshwa Bajirao II at— (A) Mahidpur (B) Sitabuldi (C) Kirki (D) Bassein Ans : (D) 90. The Treaty of Shrirangpattam took place in— (A) 1791 (B) 1792 (C) 1793 (D) 1794 Ans : (D) 91. Which of the following states wasnotannexed to British Empire by Dalhousie under the doctrine of Lapse ? (A) Baghat (B) Nagpur (C) Sambalpur (D) Benaras Ans : (D) 92. Which one of the following rebellions is associated with Sidhu and Kanhu ? (A) Munda Rebellion (B) Kole Rebellion (C) Santhal Rebellion (D) Bhil Rebellion Ans : (C) 93. The following officer was connected with the suppression of Thugee— (A) Hastings (B) Sleeman (C) Bentinck (D) Aukland Ans : (C) 94. Which of the following British Officers wasnotin favour of annexation of Awadh ? (A) Outram (B) Napier (C) Hugh Rose (D) Sleeman Ans : (D) 95. Charles Metcalf was the Governor General of India during— (A) 1835-36 (B) 1839-40 (C) 1837-38 (D) 1832-33 Ans : (A) 96. Sindh was invaded during the following Governor General’s time— (A) Lord Aukland (B) Lord Ellenborough (C) Lord Hardinge (D) Lord Dalhousie Ans : (B) 97. The Second Burmese War was fought in the year— (A) 1849 (B) 1850 (C) 1851 (D) 1852 Ans : (B) 98. Which one of the following Acts abolished the trading rights of the East India Company ? (A) Regulating Act of 1773 (B) Charter Act of 1813 (C) Charter Act of 1833 (D) Charter Act of 1853 Ans : (B) 99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Ryotwari Settlement : Madras (B) Talukdari Settlement : Bombay (C) Permanent Settlement : Bengal (D) Mahalwari Settlement : North-Western Province Ans : (B) 100. The gradual increase in rural indebtedness in India under the British rule was due to— 1. Fragmentation of Landholdings 2. Decline of cottage industries 3. Lack of development of irrigational facilities 4. Introduction of cash crops Which of these are correct ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 101. At Lucknow the revolt of 1857 broke out on— (A) May 30, 1857 (B) June 4, 1857 (C) May 15, 1857 (D) June 15, 1857 Ans : (B) 102. The Asiatic Society of Bengal in Calcutta was founded by— (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (B) Sir Williams Jones (C) Warren Hastings (D) Keshabchandra Sen Ans : (B) 103. The Theosophical Society allied itself to the— (A) Christian revival movement (B) Islamic revival movement (C) Hindu revival movement (D) All of these Ans : (C) 104. Which of the following statements about the Ramakrishna Mission is wrong ? (A) It held the pure Vedantic doctrine as its ideal (B) It aimed at the development of the highest spirituality in man (C) It prohibited the worship of images (D) It recognised modern developments in Science and Technology Ans : (C) 105. Fifth Session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1889 at— (A) Calcutta (B) Madras (C) Bombay (D) Dacca Ans : (C) 106. The moderates and extremists were united in the Congress Session of— (A) Lahore (B) Bombay (C) Allahabad (D) Lucknow Ans : (D) 107. Who among the following was not in Khilafat Committee ? (A) Majhar ul Haq (B) Hasrat Mohani (C) Maulana Shauqat Ali (D) Hakim Azmalkhan Ans : (A) 108. Who among the following was the president of All India Trade Union Congress in 1929 ? (A) M. N. Roy (B) N. M. Joshi (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Jayaprakash Narayan Ans : (B) 109. Swaraj Party was formed by— (A) C. R. Das (B) Motilal Nehru (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru Ans : (D) 110. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was concluded between— (A) Congress and the British Government (B) Muslim League and the British Government (C) Congress and the Muslim League (D) Congress, the Muslim League and the British Government Ans : (C) 111. An All Party Conference appointed a sub-committee with Ali Imam, Tejbahadur Sapru and Subhash Bose. Who was presiding this subcommittee ? (A) Maulana Azad (B) Vallabh Bhai Patel (C) Madan Mohan Malviya (D) Motilal Nehru Ans : (D) 112. Who among the following participated in all the three Round Table Conferences ? (A) Madan Mohan Malviya (B) B. R. Ambedkar (C) Sardar Patel (D) None of these Ans : (B) 113. Which of the following pairs is correct ? (A) Ramprasad Bismil : Second Lahore Conspiracy Case (B) Surya Sen : Chatgaon Case (C) Bhagat Singh : Kakori Conspiracy Case (D) Chandrashekhar Azad : Delhi Bomb Case Ans : (B) 114. When were the Congress Governments formed in seven out of eleven provinces ? (A) July 1935 (B) July 1936 (C) July 1937 (D) July 1938 Ans : (C) 115. Which of the following pairs is correct ? (A) Chelmsford : Rowlatt Act (B) Lord Reading : Delhi Darbar (C) Lord Willington : Arriving of Prince of Wales in India (D) Lord Hardinge : II Round Table Conference Ans : (A) 116. Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the government of Free India at— (A) Burma (B) Japan (C) Germany (D) Singapore Ans : (D) 117. In December 1931 two school girl students killed the District Judge in Komilla by shooting— (A) Suniti Choudhary and Bina Das (B) Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary (C) Bina Das and Kalpana Datta (D) Kalpana Datta and Shanti Ghosh Ans : (B) 118. Which of the following pairs is correct ? (A) Chuar Revolt : Orissa (B) Sanyasi Revolt : Bihar (C) Parlakhemundi Revolt : Orissa (D) Rampa Revolt : Karnatak Ans : (B) 119. The following countries undertook the responsibility of organising the Bandung Conference— (A) Indonesia, Burma, Cambodia (B) India, Burma, Indonesia (C) Sri Lanka, Indonesia, Cambodia (D) China, Japan, Thailand Ans : (B) 120. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution declares it is a primary duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the “Improvement of the Public Health” ? (A) Article 46 (B) Article 47 (C) Article 48 (D) Article 49 Ans : (B)

RAS/RTS Pre Exam Solved Indian History Question Papers RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2007 Indian History :Solved Paper(Held on 23–12–2007) 1. The Sikh Kingdom of Punjab was annexed by the English East India Company in— (A) 1836 (B) 1839 (C) 1849 (D) 1852 Ans : (C) 2. The Kol Uprising of 1831 started in— (A) Gujarat (B) Bengal (C) Rajputana (D) Chota Nagpur Ans : (D) 3. Who led the Revolt of the Bareilly troops in 1857 ? (A) Kunwar Singh (B) Bakht Khan (C) Azimullah (D) Maulvi Ahmadullah Ans : (All the four options of the question are not correct.) Khan Bahadur Khan, the successor of the former ruler (Nawab) of Rohilkhand, led the Revolt of the Bareilly troops in 1857. 4. Who among the following leaders of the Revolt of 1857 declared himself to be the Governor of Bahadur Shah ? (A) Nana Sahib (B) Tantia Tope (C) Kunwar Singh (D) Bakht Khan Ans : (All the four options of the question are not correct.) Khan Bahadur Khan of Bareilly, declared himself to be the Governor (Nazim) of Bahadur Shah. Nana Sahib declared himself as Peshwa, Kunwar Singh was a Zamindar of Bihar, Tantia Tope was the army-chief of Nana Sahib and Bakht Khan was the army-chief of Bahadur Shah. 5. The first Indian Factories’ Act was passed in— (A) 1881 (B) 1885 (C) 1891 (D) 1894 Ans : (A) 6. Which of the following was not a consequence of the British Land Revenue Policy in India ? (A) Increasing impoverishment of the peasants (B) Growing peasant indebted-ness (C) The spread of landlordism (D) The ruin of artisan indus-tries Ans : (D) 7. The Archaeological Survey of India was set up during the Viceroyalty of— (A) Lord Lytton (B) Lord Ripon (C) Lord Dufferin (D) Lord Curzon Ans : (D) 8. Who was known as ‘The Grand Old Man of India’ ? (A) B.G. Tilak (B) G.K. Gokhale (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Dadabhai Naoroji Ans : (D) 9. The most important Pre-Con-gress Nationalist Organisation was— (A) The Indian Association of Calcutta (B) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (C) Bombay Presidency Asso-ciation (D) The Madras Mahajan Sabha Ans : (A) 10. Who among the following was a leader of Prarthana Samaj ? (A) Gopal Hari Deshmukh (B) Vasudeo Balwant Phadke (C) R.G. Bhandarkar (D) G.K. Gokhale Ans : (C) 11. All India Women’s Conference was founded in— (A) 1922 (B) 1927 (C) 1929 (D) 1932 Ans : (B) The All India Women’s Con-ference (AIWC), one of the oldest voluntary organization in the country was founded in 1927 by Margaret Cousins, an Irish Lady, who had made India her home. AIWC original concern was women’s education but grad-ually it took up various social and economic issues concerning women, such as Purdah, Child Marriage, Traf-ficking, Women’s Property Right etc. Today, AIWC has over 1,00,000 members in 500 branches all over country. It is recognized as a premier organization working for Women’s Development and Empowerment. 12. Who among the following oppo-sed the Age of Consent Bill of 1891 ? (A) Swami Dayanand (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Surendranath Sen Ans : (C) 13. The worst famine in India under the British rule occurred in— (A) 1860–61 (B) 1876–78 (C) 1896–97 (D) 1899–1900 Ans : (B) 14. The first textile mill was started in Bombay in the year— (A) 1853 (B) 1855 (C) 1866 (D) 1879 Ans : (A) 15. Abhinava Bharat organised in 1904 was— (A) a secret society of revolu-tionary activists (B) a newspaper advocating revolutionary activities (C) a cultural organisation (D) a trade union movement Ans : (A) 16. A newspaper Al Hilal was brought out in 1912 by— (A) Dr. M.A. Ansari (B) Hakim Ajmal Khan (C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (D) Maulana Muhammad Ali Ans : (C) The Al-Hilal was a news-paper established by Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The newspaper also espoused the cause of the Indian independence movement and exhorted Indian Muslims to join the movement. The newspaper was shut down under the Press Act of 1914. 17. The cancellation of the partition of Bengal was announced in— (A) 1909 (B) 1911 (C) 1913 (D) 1916 Ans : (B) 18. Who criticised Indians for having lost touch with the rest of the World ? (A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Sayyed Ahmad Khan (C) Vivekananda (D) Swami Dayanand Ans : (C) 19. All India Harijan Sangh was founded by— (A) B.R. Ambedkar (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Jotiba Phule (D) B.M. Malabari Ans : (B) 20. Who among the following was not a leader of militant nationa-lism ? (A) Rajnarain Bose (B) V.S. Chiplunkar (C) Arbindo Ghosh (D) Sasipada Bannerjee Ans : (A) 21. Who among the following was the leader of Bihar Kisan Sabha ? (A) Sahajanand Saraswati (B) Baba Ramchandra (C) Vijay Singh Pathik (D) Shraddhanand Ans : (A) 22. Who became the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Council in the Interim Government of 1946-47 ? (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) M.A. Jinnah Ans : (C) 23. Who among the following woman social reformers was called ‘Pandita’ ? (A) Gangabai (B) Ramabai (C) Sister Subbalaksmi (D) Annie Besant Ans : (B) 24. Who was the leader of No Tax Campaign of the peasants orga-nised in 1928 ? (A) S.A. Dange (B) Baba Ramchandra (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (D) Subhash Chandra Bose Ans : (C) 25. The Second Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in— (A) 1928 (B) 1930 (C) 1932 (D) 1934 Ans : (C) 26. An All India Strike by Postal and Telegraph Workers started in— (A) November, 1945 (B) February, 1946 (C) July, 1946 (D) August, 1946 Ans : (B) 27. Samhita is— (A) Collection of hymns (B) Text on grammar (C) Text on Ayurveda (D) Forest treatises Ans : (A) 28. Which of the following state-ments is not true about Rigvedic Aryans ? (A) They lived in villages. (B) They did not know gamb-ling. (C) They practised polygamy. (D) Family was the unit of social life. Ans : (B) 29. Early Vedic society was organi-sed in— (A) Janas (B) Jati (C) Rajanya (D) Sabha Ans : (A) 30. Who was the author of Astadh-yayi ? (A) Patanjali (B) Panini (C) Magha (D) Visakhadatta Ans : (B) Panini was an ancient Indian grammarian from Gandhara. He is known for his Sanskrit gram-mar, particularly for his formula-tion of the 3,959 rules of Sanskrit morphology in the grammar known as Ashtadhyayi, the foundational text of the gram-matical branch of the vedanga, the auxiliary scholarly discipline of vedic religion. The Ashtadh-yayi is the earliest known gram-mar of Sanskrit, and the earliest known work on descriptive ling-uistics, generative linguistics, and together with the work of his immediate predecessors stands at the beginning of the history of linguistics itself. 31. Which of the following metal was not used by the people of the Indus Civilization ? (A) Iron (B) Bronze (C) Gold (D) Silver Ans : (A) 32. Which of the following Harap-pan sites is located in Gujarat ? (A) Banawali (B) Sanghol (C) Mudiala Kalan (D) Surkotada Ans : (D) Surkotada is an archaeolo-gical site located in India. It is famous for horse remains dated to ca. 2008 BCE. The site at Surkotada is located 160 km north east of Bhuj, in the District of Kutch, Gujarat. 33. The hallmark of Vedic religion and culture was— (A) Dhyana (B) Brahmacharya (C) Puja (D) Yajna Ans : (D) 34. Under whose patronage was the Sangam literature composed ? (A) Cholas (B) Cheras (C) Pandyas (D) Chalukyas Ans : (C) 35. What is the language of the Sangam literature ? (A) Tamil (B) Pali (C) Prakrit (D) Sanskrit Ans : (A) 36. Which of the following ideas is not associated with Buddhism ? (A) Sila (B) Prajna (C) Pitru (D) Dhyana Ans : (C) 37. The highest goal in Buddhism is— (A) Nirvana (B) Madhyama Marga (C) Vinaya (D) Atmavad Ans : (A) 38. The Third Buddhist Council was convened at— (A) Takshasila (B) Sarnath (C) Bodhgaya (D) Pataliputra Ans : (D) The third Buddhist Council was convenced in about 250 BCE at Asokarama in Patilputra, under the patronage of Emperor Asoka. The reason for convening the third Buddhist Council is reported to have been to red the sangha of corruption and bogus monks who held heretical views. It was presided over by the Elder Moggaliutta Tissa and one thou-sand monks participated in the Council. 39. Who among the following scho-lars wrote ‘History of Dharam Sastra’ ? (A) D.P. Chattopadhyay (B) P.V. Kane (C) A.S. Altekar (D) D.C. Sarkar Ans : (B) History of Dharmasastra, with subtitle Ancient and Medie-val Religious and Civil Law in India, is a monumental five-volume work consisting of around 6,500 pages, and was written by Dr. Pandurang Vaman Kane, an indologist. The first volume of the work was publi-shed in 1930 and the last one in 1962. The work is considered as Dr. Kane’s Magnum opus in English. 40. Who among the following argued that the Aryans came from Central Asia ? (A) B.G. Tilak (B) Brandenstein (C) William Jones (D) V.A. Smith Ans : (B) 41. According to tradition, how many Sangam were held ? (A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five Ans : (D) 42. Which of the following terms denotes a market centre ? (A) Prasada (B) Nigama (C) Grama (D) Nadi Ans : (B) 43. Which of the following denotes a land revenue term ? (A) Vivita (B) Bhaga (C) Sulka (D) Kara Ans : (B) 44. Which of the following officers according to Arthasastra was entrusted with the collection of revenue ? (A) Sitadhyaksa (B) Sansthadhyaksa (C) Samahartta (D) Sannidhata Ans : (C) 45. Megasthenes divided Indian society into— (A) Four groups (B) Seven groups (C) Eight groups (D) Twelve groups Ans : (B) 46. The Mauryan King Bindusara faced the rebellion of the people of— (A) Kosala (B) Nalanda (C) Kalinga (D) Takshasila Ans : (D) 47. Which sect was initially called Nirgrantha ? (A) Buddhist (B) Jaina (C) Ajivika (D) Pashupata Ans : (B) 48. Which of the following is regar-ded as the early Jaina Text ? (A) Sutra Kritang (B) Tripatika (C) Mahavastu-Avdana (D) Avdana Kalpalata Ans : (A) 49. Which of the following is a Harappan port ? (A) Alexandria (B) Lothal (C) Mahasthangarh (D) Nagapattanam Ans : (B) 50. The commonest term for peasan-try in early medieval North India is— (A) Kutumbin (B) Bhogin (C) Baddhahalika (D) Swami Ans : (A) 51. By Mauryan times the main sea-port of the Ganges basin was— (A) Sopara (B) Bhragukachchha (C) Patala (D) Tamralipti Ans : (D) 52. Which of the following is not an Antyaja ? (A) Chandala (B) Rajaka (C) Nata (D) Yavana Ans : (D) 53. Buddhism was introduced into Tibet from— (A) The Pala Empire (B) Harsha Vardhana’s State (C) The Kushana State (D) The Mauryan State Ans : (A) 54. Which of the following state-ments is not true of Ashoka’s Dhamma ? (A) There was a stress on non-violence (B) Capital punishment was discontinued (C) Donation to Brahmans was stressed (D) There was a concern for master-servant relationship Ans : (B) 55. Which of the following commo-dities was a major item of export trade in the Kusana period ? (A) Cotton textiles (B) Horse (C) Gold (D) Paper Ans : (A) 56. Who among the following is described as a fabulously rich merchant in Buddhist Jatakas ? (A) Vanik (B) Sarthavaha (C) Setthi (D) Apanika Ans : (C) 57. Alberuni’s account of India is— (A) Kitab-ul-Hind (B) Chachnama (C) Futuh-us-Salatin (D) Tarikh-i-Yamini Ans : (A) 58. Wali under the Sultans of Delhi was— (A) Provincial Governor (B) Head of Revenue Depart-ment (C) Minister with full powers (D) Head of the State news-agency Ans : (A) 59. Amir Khusro describes the mili-tary campaigns of Jalal-ud-din Khalji in his work— (A) Nuh Sipihar (B) Mifta-ul-Futuh (C) Qiran-us Sadain (D) Khazain-ul-Futuh Ans : (B) 60. The most powerful Kings of Northern India in the 9th and 10th Centuries were— (A) The Palas (B) The Chahmanas (C) The Rashtrakutas (D) The Gurjara Pratiharas Ans : (D) 61. Who declared that there were no slaves in India ? (A) Kautilya (B) Megasthenes (C) Patanjali (D) Fahien Ans : (B) 62. The view that the Rajputs were descendents of the Vedic Aryans is expressed by— (A) James Tod (B) Dashrath Sharma (C) V.A. Smith (D) C.V. Vaidya Ans : (D) 63. Which Sultan replaced the system of measurement of land by crop sharing in the Khalisa areas ? (A) Balban (B) Ala-ud-din Khalji (C) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq (D) Muhammad Tughlaq Ans : (C) 64. Who among the following Vijay-anagara rulers bore the title of Gajabentakara ? (A) Krishna Deva Raya (B) Deva Raya II (C) Deva Raya I (D) Rama Raya Ans : (B) 65. Which Vijayanagara ruler sent an embassy to China ? (A) Harihara I (B) Krishna Deva Raya (C) Bukka I (D) Saluva Narasimha Ans : (C) 66. The Sultan Ghari was built as the mausoleum of— (A) Qutab-ud-din Aibak (B) Rukh-ud-din Firoj (C) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud (D) Kaikubad Ans : (C) 67. The first Madrasa at Delhi namely “Madrasae Muizz” was established by— (A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (B) Iltutmish (C) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud (D) Balban Ans : (B) 68. Officer in-charge of royal household under the Sultans of Delhi was designated— (A) Amir-i-hajib (B) Wakil-i-dar (C) Barid-i-mumalik (D) Mustaufi-i-mumalik Ans : (B) 69. The Chishti Saint who founded a branch of Chishti Silsilah in Gulbarga was— (A) Shaikh Nasir-ud-din Chirag-i-Delhi (B) Gesu Daraz (C) Shaikh Hamid-ud-din Nagori (D) Jalal-ud-din Tabrizi Ans : (B) 70. Who among the following was not a Nirguni Bhakti Saint ? (A) Shankardev (B) Raidas (C) Dadu (D) Dhanna Ans : (A) 71. Bhramar Geet were composed by— (A) Mirabai (B) Nabhadas (C) Surdas (D) Haridas Ans : (C) 72. Select the correct chronology of dynasties that ruled Vijayana-gara ? (A) Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva, Aravidu (B) Tuluva, Sangama, Saluva, Aravidu (C) Aravidu, Sangama, Tuluva, Saluva (D) Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, Aravidu Ans : (D) 73. The largest administrative divi-sion in Vijayanagara was— (A) Kottam (B) Rajyam (C) Kurram (D) Nadu Ans : (B) 74. Pushti Marg was founded by— (A) Chaitanya (B) Vallabhacharya (C) Ramananda (D) Nimbarka Ans : (B) 75. Which of the following rulers of Bikaner was deposed by Jahan-gir ? (A) Raja Rai Singh (B) Raja Sur Singh (C) Raja Dalpat Singh (D) Raja Karan Singh Ans : (A) 76. Who is the author of Safinat-ul-Aulia ? (A) Shaikh Ahmad Sarhindi (B) Mohsin Fani (C) Dara Shukoh (D) Jahandar Shah Ans : (C) 77. Who made the Madad-i-maash grants completely hereditary ? (A) Akbar (B) Shahjahan (C) Aurangzeb (D) Bahadur Shah Ans : (D) 78. The Ibadatkhana was closed in the year— (A) 1579 (B) 1580 (C) 1582 (D) 1583 Ans : (C) 79. Who among the following Mughal Emperors made serious attempt to annex Trans-Oxiana ? (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Shahjahan Ans : (D) 80. Cultivation of tobacco was intro-duced in India during the reign of— (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb Ans : (B) 81. In 1585 Akbar shifted his capital to— (A) Kabul (B) Lahore (C) Fatehpur Sikri (D) Multan Ans : (B) 82. Nasaq during the Mughal Period was— (A) A system of land revenue assessment (B) A unit of measurement of land (C) A Zamindari territory (D) Revenue free land grant Ans : (A) Nasaq–A subordinate met-hod of revenue assessment which could be used under some major method of assessment. In this method, the revenue was asses-sed on the basis of the previous figures of assessment. 83. Which of the following mosques is entirely made of marble ? (A) Jama Masjid at Sikri (B) Moti Masjid in the Agra Fort (C) Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid in the Purana Qila of Delhi (D) Jama Masjid of Delhi Ans : (B) 84. Who among the following is the first comprehensive historian of the Marathas ? (A) M.G. Ranade (B) G.S. Sardesai (C) James Cuningham Grant Duff (D) C.A. Kincaid Ans : (C) 85. Who among the following rulers patronized musician Lal Khan Gun Samudra ? (A) Hussain Shah Sharqi (B) Islam Shah Sur (C) Ibrahim Adil Shah II (D) Shahjahan Ans : (D) 86. Dastan-i-Amir-i-Hamza was illu-strated during the reign of— (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Shahjahan Ans : (B) 87. The English East India Company obtained the lease of Madras in— (A) 1611 (B) 1623 (C) 1639 (D) 1646 Ans : (C) 88. Who among the following was imprisoned by the Mughal Emp-eror Jahangir ? (A) Gosain Jadrup (B) Miyan Mir (C) Guru Ramdas (D) Shaikh Ahmad Sarhindi Ans : (D) 89. In 1739 the Portuguese lost their possessions of Salsette and Bas-sein to— (A) The Dutch (B) The English (C) The Mughals (D) The Marathas Ans : (D) 90. Lohgarh Fort was built by— (A) Guru Hargovind (B) Guru Teg Bahadur (C) Guru Govind Singh (D) Banda Bahadur Ans : (C) 91. In 1585-86 the only Rajput who held the mansab of 5000 was— (A) Raja Bhagwant Das (B) Raja Raisingh of Bikaner (C) Raja Man Singh (D) Rai Surjan Hada Ans : (C) 92. Who introduced the Mughal land revenue system in the Deccan ? (A) Mahabat Khan (B) Mirza Raja Jaisingh (C) Diler Khan (D) Murshid Kuli Khan Ans : (D) 93. Which one of the following acco-rding to Bernier was the owner of land in India ? (A) The Zamindar (B) The King (C) The Khud Kashta (D) The Village Community Ans : (B) 94. Haidar Ali established his autho-rity over the State of Mysore in— (A) 1755 (B) 1761 (C) 1764 (D) 1766 Ans : (B) Haider Ali, born in 1721 in an obscure family, started his career as a petty officer in the Mysore Army. Though uneducated, he possessed a keen intellect and was a man of great energy, daring and determination. Haider Ali soon found his opportunity in the wars which in valved Mysore for more than twenty years. He established a Modern arsenal in Dindigal in 1755 with the help of French experts. In 1761 he overthrew Nanjaraj and established his authority over the Mysore state. 95. In 1751 the Nawab of Bengal ceded Orissa to— (A) The English East India Company (B) The Nawab of Avadh (C) The Marathas (D) The Afghans Ans : (C) 96. Which Peshwa started a long campaign against the sidis of Janjira ? (A) Balaji Vishwanath (B) Baji Rao I (C) Balaji Baji Rao (D) Madhav Rao Ans : (B) Baji Rao I was a bold and brilliant commander and an ambitious and clever statesman. He has been described as the greatest exponent of Guerrila tactics after Shivaji hed by Baji Rao, the Marathas waged nume-rous campaigns against the Mughal Empire. In 1733, Baji Rao started a long campaign against the sidis of Janjira and in the end expelled them from the main-land. 97. Who was the founder of the Widow Remarriage Association in the 19th century ? (A) Raja Rammohan Roy (B) Vishnu Shastri Pandit (C) Ramabai (D) Gopal Hari Deshmukh Ans : (B) 98. Shahu was granted the Chauth and Sardeshmukhi of the Deccan during the reign of— (A) Bahadur Shah (B) Jahandar Shah (C) Farrukh Siyar (D) Muhammad Shah Ans : (C) 99. Farrukh Siyar was deposed and killed by— (A) Zulfiqar Khan (B) Jahandar Shah (C) The Sayyed Brothers (D) Saadat Khan Ans : (C) Farrukh Siyar owed his victory to the Sayyed brothers. Abdullah Khan and Hussain Ali Khan Barahow who were there-fore given the offices of Wazir and Mir Bakshi respectively. The two brothers soon acquired domi-nant control over the affairs of the state. Farrukh Siyar lacked the capacity of rule. He was cowardly, cruel, undependable and faithless. In 1719, Farrukh Siyar was deposed and killed by Sayyed brothers. 100. The founder of the autonomous kingdom of Avadh was— (A) Saadat Khan Burhan-ul-Mulk (B) Safdar Jang (C) Murshid Kuli Khan (D) Hussain Kuli Khan Ans : (A) The Subah of Avadh, exten-ding from Kannauj district in the west to the river Karmanasa in the east, was a large and pros-perous region. It became virtually independent in 1722 when a Persian Shia adventurer named Saadat Khan was appointed its governor by Muhammad Shah.

1. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani Vocal Music is— (A) Ghazal (B) Dhrupad (C) Thumri (D) Khayal Ans : (D) 2. Frontier Gandhi was the nickname of— (A) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (B) Vinoba Bhave (C) None of these (D) Mahatma Gandhi Ans : (A) 3. Who founded the Indian National Congress ? (A) A. O. Hume (B) Sardar Patel (C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) W.C. Bannerjee Ans : (A) 4. The Revolt of 1857 was— (A) A British conspiracy (B) A revolt by rulers and landlords (C) The first war of independence (D) A sepoy mutiny Ans : (D) 5. Which one of the following Indian languages does not have a Dravidian Origin ? (A) Kannada (B) Marathi (C) Malayalam (D) Telugu Ans : (B) 6. Which of the following is a popular festival of Assam ? (A) Durgapuja (B) Bihu (C) Onam (D) Baisakhi Ans : (B) 7. Who among the following was the exponent of Visistadvaita philosophy ? (A) Vallabhacharya (B) Sankaracharya (C) Ramanujacharya (D) Madhvacharya Ans : (C) 8. Which of the following powers did not fight for the Tungabhadra Doab ? (A) Pallavas and Chalukyas (B) Cholas and later Chalukyas of Kalyana (C) Golconda and Ahmadnagar Sultanates (D) Vijaynagar and Bahmani Kingdoms Ans : (C) 9. Where was the first university in modern India founded ? (A) Bombay (B) Calcutta (C) Lahore (D) Madras Ans : (B) 10. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the invasions of north-west India after the fall of the Mauryas ? (A) Bactrian Greeks—Parthians—Kushans—Hunas (B) Bactrian Greeks—Kushans—Parthians—Hunas (C) Parthians—Bactrian Greeks—Hunas—Kushans (D) Parthians—Hunas—Bactrian Greeks—Kushans Ans : (A) 11. Which of the following events made the English East India Company the legitimate masters of the Bengal Subah ? (A) Battle of Buxar, 1764 (B) Battle of Plassey, 1757 (C) Farrukh Siyar’s Farman, 1717 (D) Ibrahim Khan’s Farman, 1690 Ans : (C) 12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Janjira Fort : Maharashtra (B) Asirgarh Fort : Madhya Pradesh (C) Daulatabad Fort : Rajasthan (D) Gingee Fort : Tamil Nadu Ans : (C) 13. Our National song has been taken from : (A) The essay ‘Bharat Vidhata’ written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya (B) The magazine ‘Tatva Bodhini’ edited by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore (C) The novel ‘Durgesh Nandini’ written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (D) The novel ‘Anand Math’ written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay Ans : (D) 14. Who designed the National Flag of independent India ? (A) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Pingley Venkayya Ans : (D) 15. Who is believed to have composed the treatise ‘Nratya Shastra’ ? (A) Brihannala (B) Menaka (C) Bharata (D) Rambha Ans : (C) 16. Who is considered as the greatest of all the Vijayanagar rulers ? (A) Krishnadeva Raya (B) Vira Narasimha (C) Sadasiva Raya (D) Rama Raya Ans : (A) 17. Which was the only Indus site with an artificial brick dockyard ? (A) Lothal (B) Kalibangan (C) Harappa (D) Mohenjo-Daro Ans : (A) 18. Nalanda University was a great centre of learning, especially in— (A) Buddhism (B) Jainism (C) Vaishnavism (D) Tantra Ans : (A) 19. ‘Lakh Baksh’ was a title given to the ruler— (A) Iltutmish (B) Balban (C) Raziya (D) Qutub-ud-din Aibak Ans : (D) 20. The Rathas of Mahabalipuram was built during the reign of the— (A) Palas (B) Cholas (C) Rashtrakutas (D) Pallavas Ans : (D)

Haryana S.S.C. Sub-Inspectors (Health Deptt.) Exam., 2008 General Awareness :Solved Paper (Held on 2-3-2008) 1. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? (A) Kota — Chambal (B) Bhubaneshwar — Mahanadi (C) Jabalpur — Narmada (D) Surat — Tapti Ans : (B) 2. Which is the India’s largest lake ? (A) Nainital (B) Sambhar (C) Sishram (D) Chilka Ans : (D) 3. Which of the following States has rich forest of sandalwood ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka (C) Kerala (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 4. Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world ? (A) Pacific (B) Indian (C) Atlantic (D) Arctic Ans : (D) 5. The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers ? (A) Godavari (B) Mahanadi (C) Damodar (D) Kosi Ans : (B) 6. The name of the galaxy, in which the earth is a planet, is— (A) Andromeda (B) Ursa Major (C) Ursa Minor (D) Milky Way Ans : (D) 7. Which national park is known for the Great Indian one-horned Rhinoceros ? (A) Dudhwa (B) Kanha (C) Kaziranga (D) Gir Ans : (C) 8. The largest irrigation canal in India is called the— (A) Yamuna Canal (B) Sirhind Canal (C) Indira Gandhi Canal (D) Upper Bari Doab Canal Ans : (C) 9. Where does Chambal river originate from ? (A) Bhind (B) Ratlam (C) Mhow (D) Ujjain Ans : (C) 10. Which of the following river is known as ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ ? (A) Damodar (B) Gandak (C) Kosi (D) Sone Ans : (A) 11. The largest public sector bank in India is— (A) Central Bank of India (B) Punjab National Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) Indian Overseas Bank Ans : (C) 12. Who gives recognition to political parties in India ? (A) Parliament (B) President (C) Supreme Court (D) Election Commission Ans : (D) 13. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Amendment Procedure ? (A) Article 368 (B) Article 358 (C) Article 367 (D) All these Ans : (A) 14. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the— (A) Judges of the High Court (B) Deputy Speaker (C) Chief Minister (D) Finance Minister Ans : (B) 15. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions ? (A) Prime Minister (B) Home Minister (C) Chief Justice of India (D) The Speaker Ans : (C) 16. Sharda Act deals with— (A) Widow Remarriage (B) Child Marriage (C) Inter-caste Marriage (D) Polygamy Ans : (B) 17. ‘Hemophilia’ is the disease of— (A) Liver (B) Blood (C) Brain (D) Bones Ans : (B) 18. Which of the following is present in Tobacco ? (A) Nicotine (B) Heroin (C) Marijuana (D) Cocaine Ans : (A) 19. These days yellow lamps are frequently used as street-light. Which one of the following is used in these lamps ? (A) Sodium (B) Neon (C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen Ans : (A) 20. Raja Harishchandra, an early Indian film, was produced by— (A) D. G. Phalke (B) Ashok Kumar (C) Ardeshir Irani (D) None of these Ans : (A) 21. Who composed the song ‘Jara Yaad Karo Kurbani’ ? (A) Javed Akhtar (B) Pradeep (C) Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan (D) Raghupati Sahay ‘Firaq’ Ans : (B) 22. Which of the following is a folk dance of Rajasthan ? (A) Garba (B) Dandiya (C) Ghoomar (D) Kathak Ans : (C) 23. Kuchipudi is a dance drama of which of the following States ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Karnataka (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (A) 24. ‘The Colonel’ is the name of which Indian test cricketer ? (A) Colonel C.K. Naidu (B) Rahul Dravid (C) Mohinder Amarnath (D) Dilip Vengsarkar Ans : (D) 25. Deodhar Trophy is related to which sport ? (A) Volleyball (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Tennis Ans : (C) 26. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the following games ? (A) Swimming (B) Weightlifting (C) Shooting (D) Archery Ans : (C) 27. ‘The Dronacharya Award’ is associated with— (A) Eminent Surgeons (B) Famous Artists (C) Sport Coaches (D) Expert Engineers Ans : (C) 28. The author of ‘Gitagovinda’ was— (A) Halayudha (B) Jayadeva (C) Kalhana (D) Jona-Raja Ans : (B) 29. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’ ? (A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal (D) Abdul Gaffar Khan Ans : (A) 30. Baba Amte is famous as a ……… (A) Painter (B) Singer (C) Politician (D) Social Worker Ans : (D) 31. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ? (A) Sushila Nayar (B) Sucheta Kriplani (C) Sarojini Naidu (D) Sulochan Modi Ans : (C) 32. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ? (A) Martin Luther King (B) Zubin Mehta (C) Mother Teresa (D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan Ans : (D) 33. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of— (A) Kathak (B) Bharathanatyam (C) Playing Violin (D) Vocal Music Ans : (D) 34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Ravi Shankar–Sitarist (B) M.F. Hussain–Tabla (C) R.K. Narayan–Novelist (D) Kaifi Azmi–Poet Ans : (B) 35. Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Bhagat Singh Ans : (C) 36. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ? (A) Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Peace (D) Music Ans : (D) 37. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed ? (A) March 8 (B) February 14 (C) May 10 (D) October 2 Ans : (A) 38. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ? (A) Pepsi (B) Coca Cola (C) LG (D) Samsung Ans : (A) 39. The 2008 Olympics will be held in— (A) London (B) Sydney (C) Beijing (D) Seoul Ans : (C) 40. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with …… (A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi (B) Quit India Movement (C) Partition of Bengal (D) Partition of India Ans : (A) 41. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which king ? (A) Dara Shikoh (B) Akbar (C) Shershah Suri (D) Shahjahan Ans : (B) 42. The central point in Ashoka’s Dharma was— (A) Loyalty to kings (B) Peace and non-violence (C) Respect to elders (D) Religious toleration Ans : (D) 43. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practised his Satyagraha in India at— (A) Chauri-Chaura (B) Ahmedabad (C) Champaran (D) Nauokhali Ans : (C) 44. ‘Do or Die’ was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ? (A) Gandhiji (B) J.L. Nehru (C) Balgangadhar Tilak (D) Subhash Chandra Bose Ans : (A) 45. Who among the following formed a party named as ‘Forward Block’ ? (A) Subhash Chandra Bose (B) Sardar Bhagat Singh (C) Chandrashekhar Azad (D) J.L. Nehru Ans : (A) 46. Where are the Dilwara Temple’s located ? (A) Shravana Belgola (B) Parasnath Hills (C) Indore (D) Mt. Abu Ans : (D) 47. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ? (A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur (B) Annie Besant (C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit (D) Amrita Shergill Ans : (B) 48. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ? (A) Barsati (B) Grama (C) Zaid (D) Khari Ans : (C) 49. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ? (A) Ganga (B) Mahanadi (C) Brahamputra (D) Godavari Ans : (A) 50. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan (C) Haryana (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (D) SOLVED BY-ER ASHOK KUMAR 'SHYAMPURIYA'

General Studies : Solved Paper 1. The Darghah of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya lies in— (A) Agra (B) Ajmer (C) Delhi (D) Fatehpur-Sikri Ans : (C) 2. ‘Purna Swarajya’ was announced in the Indian National Congress Session of— (A) Karachi (B) Lahore (C) Calcutta (D) Nagpur Ans : (B) 3. Arrange the following events in the chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Non-cooperation movement. 2. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. 3. Gandhi’s Champaran Satyagrah. 4. Civil Disobedience Movement. Codes : (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 1 2 4 3 Ans : (C) 4. “Indian Nationalism was the child of the British Raj.” Who made this statement ? (A) Bipin Chandra (B) R. Coupland (C) R. C. Majumdar (D) P. E. Roberts Ans : (B) 5. The first President of the Sovereign Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India was— (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Sachidananda Sinha Ans : (D) 6. The Pakistan resolution was adopted by the Muslim League in— (A) February 1922 (B) December 1928 (C) March 1940 (D) September 1944 Ans : (C) 7. Which one of the following rights was described by B. R. Ambedkar as “The Heart and Soul of the Constitution” ? (A) Right of freedom of religion (B) Right to property (C) Right to equality (D) Right to constitutional remedies Ans : (D) 8. Whcih Article of the Constitution of India lays down the procedure for the amendment in the Constitution ? (A) 348 (B) 358 (C) 368 (D) 378 Ans : (C) 9. Under which Article of the Constitution of India Supreme Court safeguards the fundamental rights of the Indian citizens ? (A) 74 (B) 56 (C) 16 (D) 32 Ans : (D) 10. The President of India may declare National Emergency if there is threat of— 1. External aggression 2. Internal disturbances 3. Armed rebellion 4. Communal clashes Select the correct answer from the code given below— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 3 only Ans : (A) 11. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of the State Policy ? (A) Uniform civil code (B) Freedom of the press (C) Freedom of the religion (D) Equality before law Ans : (A) 12. Which city of Turkey is the ‘Gateway to the West’ ? (A) Ankara (B) Adana (C) Izmir (D) Istanbul Ans : (D) 13. Falkland current flows along the— (A) Eastern coast of Australia (B) Western coast of South Africa (C) Eastern coast of Argentina (D) Eastern coast of Japan Ans : (C) 14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) Cyprus – Baghdad (B) Lebanon – Beirut (C) Turkey – Ashgabat (D) Ukraine – Akmola Ans : (B) 15. Bosporus strait connects— (A) Black Sea and Aegean Sea (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (C) Adriatic Sea and Mediterranean Sea (D) Black Sea and Sea of Marmara Ans : (D) 16. The largest producer of petroleum in the world is— (A) Kuwait (B) Iran (C) Saudi Arabia (D) Russia Ans : (C) 17. India played its 100th Cricket Test Match with— (A) Australia (B) South Africa (C) West Indies (D) Sri Lanka Ans : (D) 18. Dada Sahab Phalke Award 2007 was given to— (A) Lata Mangeshkar (B) Kishore Kumar (C) Manna Dey (D) Mohammad Rafi Ans : (C) 19. Tsunami killed hundreds of people in September 2009 in— (A) Hawaii Islands (B) Marshall Islands (C) Samoa Islands (D) Norfolk Islands Ans : (C) 20. The winner of the Durand Cup 2009 is— (A) Churchill Brothers (B) East-Bengal Club (C) Mahindra United (D) Mohun Bagan Ans : (D) 21. The name of the new research station being set-up in Antarctica by India is— (A) Dakshin Gangotri (B) Bharti (C) Dakshinayan (D) Maitri Ans : (D) 22. The working of a jet engine is based upon the conservation of— (A) Mass (B) Energy (C) Linear momentum (D) Angular momentum Ans : (C) 23. The law of planetary motion were enunciated by— (A) Newton (B) Keplar (C) Galileo (D) Copernicus Ans : (B) 24. Leprosy is caused by— (A) Bacteria (B) Virus (C) Fungus (D) Protozoa Ans : (A) 25. The gaseous pollutant responsible for acid rain is— (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Ammonia (D) Sulphur dioxide Ans : (D) 26. The unit of heredity in our body is called— (A) Chromosome (B) DNA (C) Gene (D) Nucleus Ans : (C) 27. Who among the following Pakistani national was awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government ? (A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (B) Liaqat Ali Khan (C) M. A. Jinnah (D) Muhammad Iqbal Ans : (A) 28. ‘Ashtadhyayi’ was written by— (A) Vedavyas (B) Panini (C) Shukadeva (D) Valmiki Ans : (B) 29. The number of Puranas is— (A) 16 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) 21 Ans : (B) 30. Which of the following Mughal Emperors granted duty-free trading facilities to the English in Bengal ? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Bahadur Shah (D) Farrukhsiyar Ans : (B)

Fake univerisity 1.Bihar● Maithili University/Vishwavidyalaya, Darbhanga, Bihar. 2.Delhi● Varanaseya Sanskrit Vishwavidyalaya, Varanasi (UP) Jagatpuri, Delhi. ● Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi. ● United Nations University, Delhi. ● Vocational University, Delhi. ● ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi - 110 008. ● Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi. 3.Karnataka● Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum, Karnataka. 4. Kerala ● St. John's University, Kishanattam, Kerala. 5. Madhya Pradesh● Kesarwani Vidyapith, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh. 6. Maharashtra ● Raja Arabic University, Nagpur, Maharashtra. 7. Tamil Nadu ● D.D.B. Sanskrit University, Putur, Trichi, Tamil Nadu. 8. Maharashtra● Raja Arabic University, Nagpur, Maharashtra. 9. Uttar Pradesh● Mahila Gram Vidyapith/Vishwavidyalaya, (Women's University) Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. ● Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. ● National University of Electro Complex Homeopathy, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh. ● Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh. ● Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura, Uttar Pradesh. ● Maharana Pratap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh. ● Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area,Khoda,Makanpur,Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh. ● Gurukul Vishwavidyala, Vridanvan, Uttar Pradesh.

Top 50 Expected Questions for More Forthcoming Entrance / Competitive Exams 1.The philosophy of Sufism is similar to the Hindu philosophy of— (a) Karma (action) (b) Bhakti (devotion) (c) Kalpa (imagination) (d) Gyana (knowledge) 2.The two volcanic islands in the Indian territory are— (a) Kavaratti and New Moor (b) Bitra and Kavaratti (c) Pamban and Barren (d) Narcondam and Barren 3.Which of the following Articles in the Indian Constitution deals with formation of new States —and alteration of areas, boundaries and names of existing States? (a) Article 1 (b) Article 2 (c) Article 3 (d) Article 4 4.A body is lifted by a man to a height of 1 m in 30 seconds. Another man lifts the same body to the same height in 60 seconds. The work done by them respectively are in the ratio of : (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 5.The world's highest water fall is in : (a) Brazil (b) USA (c) Venezuela (d) Zambia 6.Which one of the following countries has the oldest operating oil refinery ? (a) Kuwait (b) India (c) Indonesia (d) Venezuela 7.A factory for the processing of monazite has been constructed at: (a) Alwaye (b) Gopalpur (c) Thumba (d) Trombay 8.With reference to the human consumption of alcohol, consider the following statements: 1. Liver is able to synthesize fats from alcohol. 2. Alcohol addiction results in the lowering of blood sugar. 3. In the Cirrhosis of liver, the liver cells are replaced by fibrous tissue. 4. In the liver, alcohol is converted into acetic acid. Which of these statements are correct? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 9.Consider the following forms of iron: 1. Pig iron 2. Wrought iron 3. Cast iron What is the sequence of these in terms of descending order of their carbon content? (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2 (c) 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 1, 2 10.Among the following languages, which one has the highest number of speakers in the world? (a) English (b) Hindi (c) Portuguese (d) Spanish 11.The political leader Ajit Panja belongs to: (a) Indian National Congress (b) Loktantrik Congress (c) Nationalist Congress Party (d) Trinamool Congress 12.If a person first inspires with his utmost effort and then expires also with maximum effort, the volume of air breathed out is called the: (a) Expiratory Reserve Volume (b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (c) Tidal Volume (d) Vital Capacity 13.In the map given above, the shaded area represents the grasslands locally known as: (a) Downs (b) Llanos (c) Savanna (d) Velds 14.Consider the following dynasties : 1. Saluva 2. Sangama 3. Tuluva 4. Aravidu What is the correct chronological sequence of these dynasties? (a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 15.The largest fresh water Lake in the world is: (a) Baikal (b) Mansarovar (c) Michigan(d) Superior 16.The Vice-President of India is elected by: (a) Members of Rajya Sabha only (b) Members of the Lok Sabha only (c) Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (d) Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures 17.The Constitution of India describes India as: (a) a federation of States (b) Union of States (c) Confederation of States (d) a Unitary State 18.The product of the pressure and the volume of an ideal gas is: (a) a constant (b) approximately equal to the universal gas constant (c) directly proportional to its temperature (d) inversely proportional to its temperature 19.With reference to Satavahanas of ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. King Simuka was succeeded by his brother Kanha. 2. The third king Satakarni was the son of Simuka. 3. Gautamiputra was succeeded by Yajna Sri Satakarni. Which of these statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 20.The port especially developed for exporting iron ore to Japan is: (a) Haldia (b) New Tuticorin (c) Paradeep (d) Vishakhapatnam 21.Which of the following carries out 'Open Market Operations'? (a) Finance Ministry (b) External Affairs Ministry (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Planning Commission 22.United Nations' Second World Conference on Ageing was held in April 2002 in: (a) Geneva (b) Madrid (c) Rome (d) Vienna 23.Crayfish and Silverfish actually belong to the phylum: (a) Arthropoda (b) Amphibia (c) Erachnida (d) Mollusca 24.Who among the following has been awarded Padma Bhushan recently? (a) Robert D. Blackwill (b) Bill Clinton (c) Frank Pallone (d) Christina Rocca 25.Holding of elections for the Panchayats is decided by: (a) the Election Commission (b) the State Government (c) the District Magistrate (d) the Union Government 26.Which one of the following is connected to a galvanometer when it is converted into an ammeter? (a) Low resistance in series (b) High resistance in series (c) Low resistance in parallel (d) High resistance in parallel 27.In which one of the following soils is Saffron grown? (a) Alluvial (b) Karewa (c) Hilly (d) Regur 28.The volcano Mt Vesuvius is in: (a) Indonesia (b) Italy (c) Mexico (d) Philippines 29.In the human body, Henle's loop is found in: (a) Intestine (b) Kidney (c) Ovary (d) Testis 30.Ashok Shandilya is a professional player of: (a) Billiards (b) Golf (c) Squash (d) Volley-ball 31.Magnesium is present in: (a) ascorbic acid (b) chlorophyll (c) hemoglobin (d) Vitamin B12 32.Who among the following are more in number in the world? (a) Jains (b) Jews (c) Sikhs (d) Zoroastrians 33.Which one of the following was the eighth five year plan period in India? (a) 1990-1995(b) 1992-1997 (c) 1993-1998(d) 1994-1999 34.India's Foreign Exchange Reserves at present in $ billions are: (a) more than 65 (b) between 50 and 65 (c) between 35 and 50 (d) less than 35 DirectionsThe following 7 (Seven) items consist of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other labelled as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the 'Assertion (A)' and the 'Reason (R)' are individually true and if so, whether the 'Reason (R)' is the correct explanation for the given 'Assertion (A)'. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly: Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true 35.Assertion (A) :Chandragupta Maurya failed in his first campaign against Magadh. Reason (R) :He did not begin with the frontiers, but invaded the heart of Magadh. 36. Assertion (A) :The Ganga Plain is the most densely populated part of India. Reason (R) :The Ganga is the most harnessed river of India. 37. Assertion (A) :Graphite is used as a lubricant in machine industry. Reason (R) :Graphite is soft and a good conductor of heat. 38. Assertion (A) :When a piece of rock is brought from the moon to the earth its mass changes. Reason (R) :The gravitational pull of earth is stronger than that of moon. 39. Assertion (A) :Quit India Movement could not achieve its goal. Reason (R) :The government of the day adopted a very repressive policy. 40. Assertion (A) :In the initial stages of the rise of Buddhism, the people of Magadha did not respond readily to the new religion. Reason (R) :At that time, Magadha was placed outside the pale of the holy Aryavarta. 41. Assertion (A) :Jayachandra did not help Prithiviraj Chauhan in his war against Shahabuddin Ghori. Reason (R) :He thought if the power of Chauhans were destroyed it would clear the way for his own supremacy in the North. 42.The Purusha Sukta which refers to the origin of caste is found in: (a) the Atharva Veda (b) the Rig Veda (c) the Sama Veda (d) the Yajur Veda 43.The song "Bande Mataram" was originally composed in: (a) Assamese (b) Bengali (c) Hindi (d) Sanskrit 44.Which one of the following countries was never taken over by any European power as a colony? (a) Brunei (b) Indonesia (c) Thailand (d) Singapore 45.Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) Mahendravarman I : Sanchi Stupa (b) Pulakesin II : Rameswaram temple (c) Harsha : Brahadisvara temple (d) Rajendra I : Gangaikonda Cholapuram temple 46.Match List I (Institutes) with List II (Locations) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: List I List II (Institutes) (Locations) A. National Council of Applied Manpower Research 1. Pune B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 2. New Delhi C. Centre for Development Studies 3. Mumbai D. Gokhale Institute of Political Economy 4. Thiruvananthapuram Codes : A B C D (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 4 2 47.Among the following Union Territories of India, which one has the largest size? (a) Pondicherry (b) Lakshadweep (c) Daman and Diu (d) Chandigarh 48.Consider the following Companies/Corporations: 1. Engineers India Ltd. 2. Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd. 3. Rural Electrification Corporation 4. Water and Power Consultancy Services Which of these are Public Sector Undertakings? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 49.Consider the following mountain ranges: 1. Ladakh Range 2. Karakoram 3. Greater Himalayas 4. Zanskar Range What is the correct sequence of these from south to north? (a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 50.The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential Election if: (a) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister (b) he/she himself/herself is the candidate (c) he/she is yet to prove majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature (d) he/she is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature ANSWERS1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d)16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (a)26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d)36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a) 41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (d)46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (d)

Words Indicating Pairs and Groups(वर्ड्‌स इन्कीकेटिंग पेयर्स एण्ड ग्रूप्स) जोड़े और समूह दर्शाने वाले शब्द जिस प्रकार हिन्दी भाषा में कुछ विशेष वस्तुओं के जोड़ों या समूहों के लिये कुछ विशेष शब्द ही प्रयोग किये जाते हैं, उसी प्रकार अँग्रेजी में भी कुछ विशेष शब्द प्रयोग होते हैं- उदाहरण के लिये, ‘चाबियों के गुच्छे’ के लिये सही शब्द है‘Bunch of keys’; इसके लिए‘Crowd of keys’या‘group of keys’या कोई भी दूसरा शब्द प्रयोग नहीं कर सकते, ऐसे कुछ विशेष शब्दों की सूची आप नीचे देखकर याद कर सकते हैं- ● Anarmy(आर्मी) of soldiers — सैनिकों की फौज ● Abunch(बंच) of grapes — अंगूरों का गुच्छा ●Abunch(बंच) of keys — चाबियों का गुच्छा ● Abouquet(बुके) of flowers — फूलों का गुलदस्ता ● Acrowd(क्राउड) of people — लोगों की भीड़ ● Achain(चेन) of mountains — पहाड़ों की श्रृंखला ● Aflock(फ्लॉक) of sheep — भेड़ों का टैना ● Aflight(फ्लॉइट) of birds — पक्षियों का समूह ● Agroup(ग्रुप) of islands — द्वीपों का समूह ● Agang(गेंग) of robbers or labourers — डाकुओं या मजदूरों की टोली ● Agalaxy(गैलेक्सी) of stars — तारों का समूह ● Aherd(हर्ड) of deer/cattle/swine — हिरनों, जानवरों या सूअरों का झुंड ● Ahive(हाइव) of bees — मधुमक्खियों का झुंड ● Ahorde(होर्ड) of decoits — डाकुओं की टोली ● Apack(पैक) of hounds — शिकारी कुत्तों का झुंड ● Apack(पैक) of playing cards — ताश के पत्तों की गड्‌डी ● Apair(पेयर) of shoes — जूतों की जोड़ी ● Aseries(सीरीज) of numbers/events — संख्याओं/घटनाओं की श्रृंखला ● Aswarm(स्वार्म) of flies — मक्खियों का झुंड ● Atroop(ट्रूप) of horses — घोड़ो की टुकड़ी ● Atroop(ट्रूप) of soldiers — सैनिकों की टुकड़ी ● Ateam(टीम) of players — खिलाड़ियों की टीम

ALL FULL FORMS... Abbreviations (एब्रीवियेशन्स) शब्दों के संक्षिप्त रूप a. m.— Ante meridian (रात के बारह बजे से दिन के बारह बजे तक का समय) p. m.— Post meridian (दिन के बारह बजे से रात के बारह बजे तक) B. A.— Bachelor of Arts M. A.— Master of Arts B. Sc.— Bachelor of Science M. Sc.— Master of Science B. Sc. Ag.— Bachelor of Science in Agriculture M. Sc. Ag.— Master of Science in Agriculture M. B. B. S.— Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery M. D.— Doctor of Medicine M. S.— Master of Surgery Ph. D. / D. Phil.— Doctor of Philosophy (Arts और Science दोनों के लिए) D. Litt./Lit.— Doctor of Literature / Doctor of Letters D. Sc.— Doctor of Science B. Com.— Bachelor of Commerce M. Com.— Master of Commerce Dr.— Doctor B. P.— Blood Pressure Mr.— Mister Mrs.— Mistress (मिसेंज) विवाहित महिला के लिए MS.— (एम. एस.) विवाहित तथा अविवाहित दोनों प्रकार की महिलाओं के लिए Miss— कुँआरी लड़की के लिये Messrs— (मैसर्स) फर्मों के लिये M. P.— Member of Parliament M. L. A.— Member of Legislative Assembly M. L. C.— Member of Legislative Council P. M.— Prime Minister C. M.— Chief Minister C-in-C— Commander-in-chief L. D. C.— Lower Division Clerk U. D. C.— Upper Division Clerk Lt. Gov.— Lieutenant Governor D. M.— District Magistrate V. I. P.— Very Important Person I. T. O.— Income Tax Officer C. I. D.— Criminal Investigation Department C/o— Care of S/o— Son of C. B. I.— Central Bureau of Investigation G. P. O.— General Post Office H. Q.— Head Quarters E & O. E.— Errors and Omissions Excepted Kg.— Kilogram Kw.— Kilowatts Gm.— Gram Km.— Kilometer Ltd.— Limited m. p.h.— Miles per hour km. p. h.— kilometre per hour P. T. O.— Please Turn Over P. W. D.— Public Works Department C. P. W. D.— Central Public Works Department U. S. A.— United States of America U. K.— United Kingdom (England) U. P.— Uttar Pradesh M. P.— Madhya Pradesh H. P.— Himachal Pradesh U. N. O.— United Nations Organization W. H. O.— World Health Organization B. B. C.— British Broadcasting Corporation B. C.— Before Christ A. C.— Air Conditioned I. G.— Inspector General (of Police) D. I. G.— Deputy Inspector General (of Police) S. S. P.— Senior Superintendent of Police D. S. P.— Deputy Superintendent of Police S. D. M.— Sub-Divisional Magistrate S. M.— Station Master A. S. M.— Assistant Station Master V. C.— Vice-Chancellor A. G.— Accountant General C. R.— Confidential Report I. A. S.— Indian Administrative Service I. P. S.— Indian Police Service I. F. S.— Indian Foreign Service or Indian Forest Service I. R. S.— Indian Revenue Service P. C. S.— Provincial Civil Service M. E. S.— Military Engineering Service

SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam 2012 Question Paper-Solved Staff Selection Commission Combined Graduate Level Exam., 2012 (Held on July 2012) General Awareness : Solved Paper 1. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of – (A) stock of goods and services (B) all final goods and services produced in a year (C) goods produced for the market only (D) goods produced for the market and for self consumption. Ans : (B) 2. Which one of the following market structures has a kinked demand curve ? (A) Perfect competition (B) Monopoly (C) Oligopoly (D) Monopolistic competition Ans : (C) 3. Which of the following pairs is not correct ? (A) I Plan – (1951 – 1956) (B) III Plan – (1966 – 1971) (C) XI Plan – (2007 – 2012) (D) VI Plan – (1980 – 1985) Ans : (B) 4. Which of the following institutions deals with credit to Agriculture and Rural Development ? (A) IDBI (B) NABARD (C) SIDBI (D) ICICI Ans : (B) 5. As per the results of the 2011 Population Census, which of the following groups occupies the three top places in respect of literacy ? (A) Kerala, Goa, West Bengal (B) Chandigarh, Goa, Kerala (C) Kerala, Lakshadweep, Mizoram (D) Mizoram, Kerala, Tripura Ans : (C) 6. District Judges in a State are appointed by the – (A) Advocate–General of the State (B) Council of Ministers of the State (C) Governor (D) Chief Justice of High Court Ans : (C) 7. Who will head the jury of the Awards Committees of Padma, Ratna and other highest honorary awards? (A) President of India (B) Vice-President of India (C) Home Minister (D) Prime Minister of India Ans : (B) 8. Most important responsibility of a Welfare State is – (A) to preserve private property (B) to promote religion of the people (C) to check exploitation (D) to check encroachments of Fundamental Rights. Ans : (C) 9. Which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and Bhutan. 2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan and Nepal. 3. Mizoram shares a border with Bangladesh and Myanmar. (A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2 (C) 2, 3 (D) 1, 3 Ans : (A) 10. Arrange the following Presidents in chronological order as to who came first and who came later : 1. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 2. Zakir Hussain 3. Justice Hidayatullah 4. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (A) 3, 2, 1, 4 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 (C) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1 Ans : (B) 11. Which one of the following events are chronologically correct ? (A) Civil Disobedience Movement–Quit India Movement–The Cabinet Mission Plan (B) The Cabinet Mission Plan–Civil Disobedience Movement –Quit India Movement (C) Quit India Movement – Civil Disobedience Movement – Cabinet Mission Plan (D) Civil Disobedience Movement – The Cabinet Mission Plan – Quit India Movement Ans : (A) 12. Who founded the Vikramasila University ? (A) Dhruva (B) Devapala (C) Dharmapala (D) Mahipala Ans : (C) 13. Which of the following was not known during the Rigvedic period ? (A) Joint family system (B) Agriculture (C) Varna system (caste) (D) Marriage system Ans : (C) 14. Match the following – Dynasty — Founder a. Pallavas — 1. Dantidurg b. Chalukyas — 2. Vishnuvardhan c. Rashtrakutas — 3. Simhavishnu d. Hoysalas — 4. Pulakesin I a b c d (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 4 3 2 1 Ans : (B) 15. Abul Fazl wrote – (A) Babur–Nama (B) Humayun–Nama (C) Akbar–Nama (D) Alamgir–Nama Ans : (C) 16. Which of the following is called the ‘Crossroads of the Pacific’ ? (A) Tonga (B) Fiji (C) Hawaii (D) Ellice Ans : (B) 17. Which one of the following is an act of man that disturbs the ecological balance ? (A) Vanamahotsav (B) Afforestation (C) Lumbering (D) Social forestry Ans : (C) 18. Which one is not correctly matched ? (A) Longcoy – Russia (B) Rhine – Germany (C) Glasgow – Great Britain (D) Pittsburg – USA Ans : (A) 19. How many States in India are coastal ? (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10 Ans : (C) 20. International boundary between India and Pakistan is demarcated by – (A) Mc Mahon Line (B) Durand Line (C) Radcliffe Line (D) Maginot Line Ans : (C) 21. Which one of the following is called the amphibian in plant kingdom ? (A) Algae (B) Fungi (C) Bryophyta (D) Pteridophyta Ans : (C) 22. Find the odd one out. (A) Hookworm (B) Guinea worm (C) Tapeworm (D) Ringworm Ans : (D) 23. National Institute of Nutrition is a research institute located in the State of – (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (A) 24. A tree’s age can be found by – (A) measuring its height (B) counting the number of annual rings (C) counting the number of branches (D) no means Ans : (B) 25. The left aortic arch is observed in – (A) Amphibians (B) Mammals (C) Reptiles (D) Aves Ans : (B) 26. Tendon connects – (A) Bone to bone (B) Muscle to bone (C) Bone to muscle (D) Muscle to muscle Ans : (B) 27. Mercury is generally used in thermometers because it has a – (A) high fluidity (B) high density (C) high conductivity (D) high specific heat Ans : (C) 28. To an observer on the lunar surface, during daytime, the sky will appear to be – (A) Light yellow (B) Blue (C) Orange (D) Black Ans : (D) 29. Which of the following quantities is the measure of ‘inertia’? (A) Velocity (B) Acceleration (C) Mass (D) Weight Ans : (C) 30. The intensity of a wave – 1. follows inverse square law. 2. is proportional to its amplitude. 3. is proportional to the square of the amplitude. (A) 1 and 2 are true (B) 2 and 3 are true (C) Only 2 is true (D) 1 and 3 are true Ans : (D) 31. Which data communication method is used for sending data in both directions at the same time ? (A) Super duplex (B) Simplex (C) Half duplex (D) Full duplex Ans : (D) 32. What does the acronym ISDN stand for ? (A) Indian Standard Digital Network (B) Intergrated Services Digital Network (C) Intelligent Services Digital Network (D) Integrated Services Data Network Ans : (B) 33. Darkening property of photo-chromatic glass is due to the presence of – (A) silver bromide (B) silver oxide (C) silver nitrate (D) silver chloride Ans : (D) 34. Supersonic aircrafts discharge the following substance into the stratosphere – (A) NOX(B) SOX (C) CO2(D) H2 Ans : (B) 35. Chemical nature of laughing gas is – (A) Nitric oxide (B) Hydrogen chloride (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Sulphur dioxide Ans : (C) 36. The difference between isotopes of an element is due to the presence of a different number of – (A) protons (B) neutrons (C) electrons (D) photons Ans : (B) 37. The increasing abundance of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has led to the following effects except – (A) Global warming (B) Depletion of ozone layer in the stratosphere (C) Oxygen fertilisation effect (D) Carbon dioxide ferrilisation effect Ans : (C) 38. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution ? (A) Diesel (B) Kerosene (C) Hydrogen (D) Coal Ans : (C) 39. Minamata epidemic that caused several deaths in Japan in 1965 occurred due to pollution in water by – (A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Fluoride (D) DDT Ans : (B) 40. Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of – (A) 0.2 ppm (B) 0.3 ppm (C) 3.0 ppm (D) 9.0 ppm Ans : (D) 41. The first President to sail in a submarine in India was – (A) K. R. Narayanan (B) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (C) V. V. Giri (D) N. Sanjeeva Reddy Ans : (B) 42. Cooking vessels have wooden or bakelite handles because – (A) wood and bakelite are bad conductors of heat (B) the handle must be strong (C) the handle should be attractive (D) None of the above Ans : (A) 43. “Deshbandhu” is the title of – (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) C. R. Das (C) B. C. Pal (D) Rabindranath Tagore Ans : (B) 44. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect ? (A) Jeev Milkha Singh– Golf (B) Irfan Pathan – Cricket (C) Abhinav Bindra – Rifle shooting (D) Sania Mirza – Badminton Ans : (D) 45. In which of the following States, is the child–sex ratio the lowest as per the 2011 Census ? (A) Haryana (B) Punjab (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Bihar Ans : (A) 46. Kaziranga National Park is situated in – (A) Odisha (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) Assam Ans : (D) 47. Who is the author of the book ‘if Cricket is Religion, Sachin is God’ ? (A) Vijai Santhanam (B) Shyam Balasubramaniam (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Ans : (C) 48. Which of the following statements is not correct about Sunder Lal Bahuguna ? (A) He is an eminent environmentalist (B) He was awarded Padma Bhushan in 2009 (C) He started the ‘Chipko Movement’ to create awareness of deforestation (D) He was elected to Lok Sabha from Uttarkashi in Uttarakhand Ans : (D) 49. The three countries, in serial order, who won the highest number of Gold medals in the Beijing Olympics Games were – (A) China, USA, Russia (B) China, USA, Germany (C) China, Germany, Australia (D) China, Germany, USA Ans : (A) 50. The first woman from India to be conferred the Sainthood by Pope Benedict XVI is – (A) Sister Desouza (B) Sister Madorana (C) Sister Alphonsa (D) Sister Nirmala Ans : (C)

CV Writing Tips GenerallyCV'sare called a variety of things (eg, curriculum vitae, resume, biodata). There is no universally accepted format. The most important attribute of a successful CV is that it clearly explains to the reader what it is that you can do for them. Your CV should be: - A well-presented, selling document - A source of interesting, relevant information - A script for talking about yourself The purpose of your CV is not to get you the job. Its purpose is to get you an interview, and after your meeting to remind the person you met with about you. Remember: you are not writing a CV for yourself, you are writing it for the reader. So, as you write your CV, put yourself in the shoes of the intended reader. This section takes you through the content and detail of effective CVs: - A standard two-page printed CV - A one-page summary CV - An online CV The decision to recruit is like a buying decision on the part of an employer. This creates a very clear picture of what a CV must include: It must meet the needs of the target organisation where possible. This means a single generalist CV is unlikely to be sufficient. It must highlight your achievements and how they relate to the job you are applying for. It must give the reader a clear indication of why you should be considered for this role. To decide what to include in your CV and where, follow these principles and guidelines: Generally, the document should contain no more than 2 pages. Sometimes, a one page summary is all that is required. Your CV should be honest and factual. The first page should contain enough personal details for a recruitment consultant or potential employer to contact you easily. Choose a presentation format that allows you to headline key skills, key achievements or key attributes. Your employment history should commence with your current or most recent job and work backwards. Achievements should be short, bullet-pointed statements and include your role, the action you took and a comment on the result of your action. Where information clearly demonstrates your suitability for the vacancy you're applying for, and enhances your chances of being short-listed, include this information near the beginning of the CV. Leave out information that is irrelevant or negative. Include details of recent training or skills development events you have attended which could be relevant. List all your professional memberships and relevant qualifications. As we work through examples in this section, we will continually refer back to these principles and guidelines. The most common contents of a CV include: - Personal Details - Skills and Career Summary - Key Achievements - Qualifications - Career History Don't forget:The ultimate test of YOUR CV is whether it meets the needs of the person making the buying decision, and whether YOU feel comfortable with its content and style. The next few pages will provide a detailed description of how to achieve this. When you submit a printed CV to a recruiter or a potential employer, it is likely to be the first thing they get to see or read of yours. Therefore, you need to present your CV well and make it user friendly. For example: Use a good quality paper, typically 100gsm in weight and watermarked. In most cases, be conservative and print your CV in black ink on white paper. Covering letters should use identical stationery. ■ Lay your CV out neatly ■ Don't make the margins too deep or too narrow ■ Resist writing lengthy paragraphs - be concise ■ Careful use of bold type can be effective ■ Typefaces such as Times New Roman or Arial are fairly standard ■ Do not use a type size less than 11pt. Check for spelling or typographical errors - whoever actually types your CV, errors are YOUR responsibility. Don't rely on a spell checker. If you're not sure about a word, resort to a dictionary. Sloppiness and lack of care could be heavily penalised. Key Skills/Competencies/Attributes: Summarise the things about you that are relevant to this role. You can present the information as a list of achievements, a summary of skills, or a list of key competencies (this choice should be made in consultation with your career consultant). Give as much evidence as you can to suggest that you are suited to the career that you are pursuing. A reminder: You will find a list of your skills in the summary pages. The one-page summary CV may also include one or two of the following sections if you consider they enhance your application

TIPS FOR IAS/IPS EXAM CRACKING IAS Mains : 10 Success Sutras to Crack Mains 1. What makes one successful and another failure in Mains? All the candidates are having books, all the candidates are dedicated to work and most of them attend coaching institutions, take guidance from seniors and friends but what makes one success and another failure. Students say they studied for 18 hours and still they couldn't make mains. Others say they studied only for 8-9 hours and could make mains. Why these differences. The difference between successful candidates and the failure candidates is same as difference between ordinary and extra-ordinary persons. One who is able to make mains never counts the hours and how many books he/she has read. But they know what to read, what not to read, how much to read, how to use when required writing the answers. Civil Service exam never wants one to be ideal. It requires creativity, innovativeness within the candidates, who lack to use his/her knowledge properly they feel tough to clear the exam. Before starting the preparation find out properly what to read, what not to read, what types of question are asked from particular topics. After taking guidance from others put your own strategy, don't follow their strategy it may not be suitable for you, Better strategy makes one success in mains. 2. Going through Syllabus This year there is change in the syllabus of General-Studies and also optional paper. Don't get tense when somebody says there is change in syllabus. Civil Service exam tries to select candidates who are creative and innovative and aware of day to day life. Accordingly, syllabus has been changed. First go through General Studies syllabus thoroughly and try to be perfect with the syllabi. If you know syllabus, 20% of your work is over. It helps you what to read and what not to read. Don't neglect the added syllabus. Always questions will be asked from the new syllabus. Try to think what type of questions may come from particular topic. What is the relevance of particular topic in today's life? In the same way go through the added topics of both optional and try to cover them first. Old candidates may know other parts of the syllabus only added syllabus they have to be perfect. New-comers have to know whole syllabus before starting their studies. 3. Having balanced approach towards Optional Candidates have to select too optiona1 for mains. Most of the candidates take one optional same for both prelims and mains. Some may have different optional papers for prelims and two different optionals for mains. Both the optional papers should be given same weightage. Don’t neglect the optional which you were having for prelims.. Don't think already that you have studied for prelims and can give less time for mains. There are many students who are unable to score more than 300 marks in first optional but easily they can score more than 300 marks in second optional. This is because way of approach for study differs. Student might know concepts but unable to use where it is required. Therefore study both optionals simultaneously. Marks of both optional are important to be successful in exam. Considering question number 1 and 5 is equally important Question number 1 and 5 play very important role in getting good score. From both the optionals we have 480 marks for these questions. Therefore, practice writing short answers while preparing. Study previous year questions and analyze what type of questions has been asked from particular topics. Try to cover all the points within 200 words. Read the questions properly and answer according to the nature of the question. While studying try to note down topics where short notes can be asked and write points for that topic and keep. That will help during revision. 4. Exclusive skills for presenting answer After the prelims exams and till the exam date everyone study. But, in Civil Service main exam only studying is not important. But here important is how one is using his knowledge to write particular paper within three hours. What one writes during these three hours makes one topper and anther failure. Here how much you studied it doesn't matter, but how you are using your knowledge to write particular answer. Therefore while studying, always think what type of questions may be asked from particular topics and what points to be included to make different from others. Many times we hear students saying they have done their exams very well. Question paper was very easy. But still they are unable to make mains. Why? When question paper is given they never try to read full question. If they come across the words they know they start writing answers. They might have written wrong answer also. There they make mistakes. First, study questions properly and understand what has been asked. Then think what to be written for that answer. Write up to the point answers. While writing 60 marks answers follow one strategy. When you read question, take always last page of your answer booklet and start writing the points what all to be included in that answer. Because while writing suddenly you may forget the points, these points give hints to continue the answer and make to be within the track. . Don't repeat the paragraphs. If graphs, pie-charts, flow charts are required draw them to make examiner know what you have written. Always follow word-limit. If you think you know more about that answer and start writing more on that answer, you cannot complete the paper within a given time. Always try to give positive points. Don't mention anybody's name. Write such type of inputs which makes your answer different from others. 5. Current Affairs Current Affairs play leading role in the Civil Service main exam. Students try to buy many current affairs magazine and they think they studied more instead of that studied from one magazine and be a regular reader of newspaper. Whatever you read, try to make note of it, It helps to revise. Without revising you cannot remember the points. Study previous years question paper and try to analyse what type of questions have been asked from current affairs. See whether there is any change in asking questions from one year to another. General Studies first paper contains national affairs, social issues, geographical issues and etc. And General Studies second paper includes international affairs, economics, science and technology, statistics. All these topics are related to current affairs. Therefore concentrate more on current affairs. The students having stronghold on current affairs are able to score more than 300 marks in General Studies. Current Affairs also play leading role optional. Same of the optionals like Public Administration, Political Science, Science, and Sociology require current trends. Therefore one must be aware what type of current affairs is required for particular topic. Here one should remember only reading current affairs never give marks. Try to revise it again and again and you will be able to recollect during the exam. Preparing current affairs should be continuous process and don't think some days can be allotted for it. 6. Two marker questions and 20 words Always small things make great thing happen. That means, too marker questions are very important to score more than 300 marks in General Studies. Usually students think, it's only two marks, they can write them without any strategy. But when you really sit for writing you will understand how much difficult are those. To write these questions you must evolve good strategy. While reading newspaper you may come across some personalities, places and terms try to write on them about in 20 words. Keep on practicing. If answer is written up to the mark you can get full marks. If you ask any topper, he always says that he gave importance to two markers. To make yourself different from others, prepare your own strategy in order to study these two marks questions. Go through previous years questions and try to write yourself for those questions. While reading any newspaper, magazine or book, note down the words and write on that topic. In exam hall, write up to the point. This can come only by practice. Questions will be from Indian polity, economies, history, culture, science and technology, geographical concepts, personalities. While studying, make different note on different topics thus it helps to revise properly. 7. Selective Study All the candidates who are preparing for civil service main examination know the importance of selective study. Being selective is how much useful in preparation how it makes one comfortable. When students, who are preparing for examination, see the vast syllabus, they find themselves in confusing state. It is like throwing one into the sea; That means syllabus is so vast if they sit for preparing simply without making any selection. One needs complete one year to read whole syllabus. By that time exams are on the head, candidates are not fully prepared in each topic and after reading the entire syllabus they are not even in position to tackle anyone question perfectly. Therefore, selective study is very important in civil service preparation. One should know what to study, what to be given more importance, what not to be studied and etc. Once study whole syllabus completely. They should take some 3-4 previous year question .papers and study the topics thoroughly. This help to decide on which topics frequently questions are asked and on which topic analytical questions are coming, on which topic short questions are coming and so on. By going through previous year question paper one can understand what to study' in current affairs. This makes one to be selective while reading newspapers.' Otherwise one has to spend more time on newspapers. Syllabus of optional subjects are also vast, sp candidates often have many books to cover the topics but they cannot read all of them so here also being selective is very important. Try to read standard books and recollect the points what you have read and how it is useful in writing the answers. Selective study hopes you to answer any question asked on that topic. Most of the toppers follow strategy of being selective. It is not wise to waste time in reading which is not required for the exam. One should have proper approach towards study the optional subjects to get success at mains. 8. Importance of Compulsory Papers English and any other Indian language and one essay paper are compulsory for civil service main examination. Its nature is of qualifying nature so often candidates think that hey easily can write them and clear these papers. But after each result actually we see that many students are unable to clear language papers. Even some candidates await there result positively and actually they did very well at there exam but finally language papers create a big hurdle. So never underestimate these too language papers and do not neglect them. Here their importance is more. Without qualifying these papers, you cannot at mains. Therefore, they cannot be neglected. These are considered as first step to clear mains. Therefore, be perfect with grammar, essay writing, precise writings. The students who are getting good marks in essay can definitely get success in mains. Essay paper plays important role in getting good rank. This paper is for 200 marks. One Who writes good essay can get upto 140 marks. This makes great difference between an ordinary student and an extra-ordinary student. To write essay one should have comprehensive thinking. While preparing, don't prepare a few topics. Prepare general way. Select topics like global warming, social change, and development-oriented topics, globalization, terrorism, democracy' and prepare on these' topics in general way. Particular topics won't be asked in the exam. But whatever you have studied can be used in anyway while writing essay. Read all the topics of essay at least once, and then select which topic you feel comfortable. Then take last page of your answer booklet and note down all the points you know so that you will not forget the main points while you writing the essay. Then arrange the points in accordance with their importance and there should be continuation of paragraphs. . . Always write common language, don't use complicated words and don't bring optional concepts into the essay.' Essay paper also marks the assessment of your personality. Therefore be careful while choosing the topics and while writing the essay paper. 9. 2600 Marks to be covered in 100 days Civil Service Main Examination is an examination of 2600 marks. In that two compulsory language papers have 300 marks each. They are qualifying papers and are important to clear the main examination. After preliminary examination there will be 150 days available for preparing for mains; But while choosing second optional and collecting books candidates waste some 40 to 50 days. Only reaming will be 100 days to go far mains. these 100 days are crucial for everyone. Aspirants have to cover some 100 topics in optional and some 100 topics in General Studies. To achieve one's goal within 100 days, one has to follow proper strategy. Planning is very important to complete studies. 100 days can be split into two parts: first 80 days for studying and remaining 20 days for revision. Main examination requires how you analytically think over the .topic. Therefore, revision helps one to know how one can recollect the points. Study all the subjects simultaneously. Equal weightege should be given to all the papers. According to your comfortability with subject allot your time for study and make planning every week. Change the planning according to the topics to be covered. Planning helps to use 100 days fruitfully to achieve the goal. 10. What to follow: during preparation and in examination hall (a) Read limited books. Don't try to read more books. Read fewer books and gain more from them. Read only one or two newspapers and follow anyone book on current affairs. Reading more books make you what to remember or not. (b) Be selective while reading a newspaper. From the beginning of your preparation build the habit of reading what is important from the exam point of view. Spend only 45 minutes to 60 minutes for newspaper daily. (c) Always plan your studies. For a week and also for a day. This helps to complete the syllabus within a time. (d) In the name of selective study don't leave what to be studied. Don't go only for popular topics study what may be asked in the mains. (e) Prepare your own notes. But don't spend more time in preparing notes. Make point-wise notes which can be reversed very easily with less time. (f) Don't run from difficult topics. Get clarified from somebody else and simply don't leave difficult topics. Don't give importance to what you know. Give less time for what you know and more time for studying difficult topics. (g) Make more and more practices for writing answers. Don't be lazy. At least p1ake the habit of writing points to be included in that answer. (h) While writing answer in examination hall, I don't cross the word-limit. If you cross the word I limit, you cannot manage to write all the answers. (i) Statistics carries 40'marks in General Studies. Give importance to this section while II preparation and also in the examination hall. In the examination hall, keep last 20 minutes for statistics and don't take it first. Practice makes you to solve the problem within a time limit. (J) Last point is very important. Don't be hurry while reading the question paper. Read slowly word by word and you can understand what is asked. Otherwise, there is a chance of writing wrong answer. Therefore, follow questions' properly.

NIFT Fashion Design Entrance Exam Solved Paper 2013 National Institute of Fashion TechnologyFashion Design (Under Graduate) Exam 2013 General Knowledge Solved Paper 1. “Consumer Electronic Imaging Fair 2013” formally known as “Photo Fair” was organised during January 2013 at– (A) Kolkata (B) Chennai (C) Delhi (D) Mumbai Ans : (C) 2. Who is the brand ambassador of NOKIA Phones in India ? (A) Shah Rukh Khan (B) Aamir Khan (C) Abhishek Bachchan (D) M.S. Dhoni Ans : (A) 3. Which are the rivers that originate from the Mansarovar region ? (A) Narmada, Tapti, Beas (B) Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra (C) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery (D) Ganges, Yamuna, Hooghly Ans : (B) 4. Where are the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located? (A) Italy (B) Switzerland (C) Belgium (D) France Ans : (B) 5. What is common about famous personalities Manish Malhotra, J. J. Valya and Rohit Bal? (A) Male Modelling (B) Film Direction (C) Novel Writing (D) Fashion Designing Ans : (D) 6. Which Indian State is the leading Cotton producer ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (A) 7. Mahindra & Mahindra has acquired the manufacturing of ………. by naming its next generation electric car as the Mahindra e2o that is ‘E-too-oh’. (A) Reva (B) Punto (C) Nano (D) Bolero Ans : (A) 8. World’s largest roller coaster named ‘Ferrari World’ is located in– (A) Tokyo (B) Abu Dhabi (C) Mumbai (D) Beijing Ans : (B) 9. Who won the men’s national table tennis championship in January 2013 held in Raipur? (A) Soumyajit Ghosh (B) Sharat Kamal (C) Sourabh Chaktaborty (D) G Jalyan Ans : (A) 10. Who won the reality TV show “Bigg Boss Season 6” in January 2013 hosted by actor Salman Khan ? (A) Sana Khan (B) Urvashi Dholakia (C) Imam Siddique (D) Niketan Madhok Ans : (B) 11. ‘Canterbury’, the premium Indian brand of woollen cardigans and pullovers is from the house of– (A) Monte-Carlo (B) Woodland (C) Digjam (D) OCM Ans : (A) 12. Which state has the traditional dress of men known as “Sola or Fotua” and “Eri-Chaddar” ? (A) Assam (B) Tripura (C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya Ans : (A) 13. Which one of the following cosmetic companies has launched Color Riche Nail Collection “Le nail Art” ? (A) Lakme (B) L’Oreal (C) Garnier (D) Clinique Ans : (B) 14. The ‘more mega store’ retail chain belongs to which Indian Industry? (A) Reliance Industry (B) Bharti Enterprises (C) Aditya Birla Group (D) None of these Ans : (C) 15. Who is the brand ambassador of the Hockey India League (HIL) 2013 ? (A) Pargat Singh (B) Dhanraj Pillai (C) Navjot Singh Sidhu (D) Virat Kohli Ans : (C) 16. ‘Van Heusen’ is a leading International brand of– (A) formal wear (B) fashion accessories (C) jewellery (D) None of these Ans : (A) 17. ‘Sonata’, ‘Ajanta’ and ‘Maxima’ are the well-known Indian brands of– (A) jewellery (B) watches (C) cosmetics (D) home furnishing Ans : (B) 18. Lionel Messi, the winner of four FIFA-Ballon d’Or and World Player of the Year belongs to– (A) Brazil (B) Spain (C) Argentina (D) Germany Ans : (C) 19. Who has been crowned ‘Miss Earth’ Beauty Pageant at the 12th edition held in November 2012 ? (A) Stephany Stetanowitz (B) Tereza Fajksova (C) Osmariel Villalobos (D) Camila Brant Ans : (B) 20. FDI stands for– (A) Fashion Directorate of India (B) Foreign Direct Investment (C) Fashion Designer’s Initiative (D) Foreign Directory of Industries Ans : (B) 21. The international awards given by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, California (USA) for excellence in the field of cinema are popularly known as– (A) IIFA Awards (B) Oscar Awards (C) BAFTA Awards (D) Grammy Awards Ans : (B) 22. The largest continent in terms of area is– (A) Asia (B) Africa (C) Australia (D) North America Ans : (A) 23. The space agency NASA belongs to– (A) Germany (B) USA (C) Russia (D) France Ans : (B) 24. The basic function of technology ‘Blue tooth’ is to allow– (A) landline phone to mobile phone communication (B) signal transmission on mobile phones only (C) satellite television communication (D) wireless communication between equipment Ans : (D) 25. Which among the following is the source of a non-conventional energy? (A) Solar Power (B) Coal (C) Uranium (D) Petroleum Ans : (A)

List of Padma Awardees - 2014 Padma Bhushan Padma Shri Following are the winners of the country's highest civilian awards this year : Padma Vibhushan No Name Discipline State 1.Dr. Raghunath A. MashelkarScience and EngineeringMaharashtra 2.Shri B.K.S. IyengarOthers-YogaMaharashtra PadmaBhushan No Name Discipline State 1.Prof. Gulam Mohammed SheikhArt - PaintingGujarat 2.Begum Parveen SultanaArt - Classical SingingMaharashtra 3.Shri T.H. VinayakramArt - Ghatam ArtistTamil Nadu 4.Shri Kamala HaasanArt-CinemaTamil Nadu 5.Justice Dalveer BhandariPublic AffairsDelhi 6.Prof. Padmanabhan BalaramScience and EngineeringKarnataka 7.Prof. Jyeshtharaj JoshiScience and EngineeringMaharashtra 8.Dr. Madappa MahadevappaScience and EngineeringKarnataka 9.Dr. Thirumalachari RamasamiScience and EngineeringDelhi 10.Dr. Vinod Prakash SharmaScience and EngineeringDelhi 11.Dr. Radhakrishnan KoppillilScience and EngineeringKarnataka 12.Dr. Mrityunjay AthreyaLiterature and EducationDelhi 13.Ms. Anita DesaiLiterature and EducationDelhi 14.Dr. Dhirubhai ThakerLiterature and EducationGujarat 15.Shri Vairamuthu Ramasamy ThevarLiterature and EducationTamil Nadu 16.Shri Ruskin BondLiterature and EducationUttarakhand 17.Shri Pullela GopichandSports - BadmintonAndhra Pradesh 18.Shri Leander PaesSports - TennisMaharashtra 19.Shri Vijayendra Nath KaulCivil ServiceDelhi 20.Late Justice Jagdish Sharan VermaPublic AffairsUttar Pradesh 21.Late Dr. Anumolu RamakrishnaScience and EngineeringAndhra Pradesh 22.Prof. AnisuzzamanLiterature and EducationBangladesh 23.Prof. Lloyd I. Rudolph and Prof. Susanne H. RudolphLiterature and EducationUSA 24.Dr. (Smt.) Neelam KlerMedicine - NeonatologyDelhi PadmaShri No Name Discipline State 1.Shri Mohammad Ali BaigArt - TheatreAndhra Pradesh 2.Ms. Nayana Apte JoshiArtMaharashtra 3.Shri Musafir Ram BhardwajArt - Instrumental Music - Pauna ManjhaHimachal Pradesh 4.Ms. Sabitri ChatterjeeArt - FilmWest Bengal 5.Prof. Biman Bihari DasArt - SculptorDelhi 6.Shri Sunil DasArt - PaintingWest Bengal 7.Smt. Elam Endira DeviArt - Manipuri DanceManipur 8.Shri Vijay GhateArt - Instrumental Music - TablaMaharashtra 9.Smt Rani KarnaaArt - KathakWest Bengal 10.Shri Bansi KaulArt - TheatreJammu & Kashmir 11.Ustad Moinuddin KhanArt - Instrumental Music - Sarangi PlayerRajasthan 12.Ms. Geeta MahalikArt - Odishi DanceDelhi 13.Shri Paresh MaityArt - PaintingDelhi 14.Shri Ram MohanArt - Film AnimationMaharashtra 15.Shri Sudarsan PattnaikArt - Sand ArtistOrissa 16.Shri Paresh RawalArt - Cinema and TheatreMaharashtra 17.Shri Wendell Augustine RodricksArt - Fashion DesigningGoa 18.Prof. Kalamandalam SathyabhamaArt - Mohini AttamKerala 19.Shri Anuj (Ramanuj) SharmaArt - Performing ArtChhattisgarh 20.Shri Santosh SivanArt - FilmTamil Nadu 21.Ms. Supriya DeviArt-Bengali CinemaWest Bengal 22.Ms. Sooni TaraporevalaArt- Script WritingMaharashtra 23.Ms. Vidya BalanArt-CinemaMaharashtra 24.Smt. Durga JainSocial WorkMaharashtra 25.Dr. Rama Rao AnumoluSocial WorkAndhra Pradesh 26.Dr. Brahm DuttSocial WorkHaryana 27.Shri Mukul Chandra GoswamiSocial WorkAssam 28.Shri J.L. KaulSocial WorkDelhi 29.Shri Mathurbhai Madhabhai SavaniSocial WorkGujarat 30.Shri Tashi TondupPublic AffairsJammu and Kashmir 31.Dr. Hasmukh Chamanlal ShahPublic AffairsGujarat 32.Shri Sekhar BasuScience and EngineeringMaharashtra 33.Shri Madhavan ChandradathanScience and EngineeringKerala 34.Prof. Sushanta Kumar DattaguptaScience and EngineeringWest Bengal 35.Dr. Ravi Bhushan GroverScience and EngineeringMaharashtra 36.Prof. Eluvathingal Devassy JemmisScience and EngineeringKarnataka 37.Shri Ramkrishna V. HosurScience and EngineeringMaharashtra 38.Dr. Ajay Kumar ParidaScience and EngineeringTamil Nadu 39.Dr. Malapaka Yajneswara and Satyanarayana PrasadScience and EngineeringAndhra Pradesh 40.Shri Kiran Kumar Alur SeelinScience and EngineeringGujarat 41.Dr. Brahma SinghScience and EngineeringDelhi 42.Prof. Vinod Kumar SinghScience and EngineeringMadhya Pradesh 43.Dr. Govindan SundararajanScience and EngineeringAndhra Pradesh 44.Ramaswamy R. IyerScience and EngineeringDelhi 45.Dr. Jayanta Kumar GhoshScience and EngineeringWest Bengal 46.Shri Ravi Kumar NarraTrade and IndustryAndhra Pradesh 47.Shri Rajesh SaraiyaTrade and IndustryMaharashtra 48.Ms. Mallika SrinivasanTrade and IndustryTamil Nadu 49.Shri Pratap Govindrao PawarTrade and IndustryMaharashtra 50.Dr. Kiritkumar Mansukhlal AcharyaMedicine - DermatologyGujarat 51.Dr. Balram BhargavaMedicine - CardiologyUttar Pradesh 52.Prof. (Dr.) Indra ChakravartyMedicine - Health & HygieneWest Bengal 53.Dr. Ramakant Krishnaji DeshpandeMedicine - OncologyMaharashtra 54.Prof. (Dr.) Pawan Raj GoyalMedicine - Chest DiseaseHaryana 55.Prof. Amod GuptaMedicine - OpthalmologyHaryana 56.Prof. (Dr.) Daya Kishore HazraMedicineUttar Pradesh 57.Prof. (Dr.) Thenumgal Poulose JacobMedicine - Vascular SurgeryTamil Nadu 58.Prof. (Dr.) Shashank R. JoshiMedicine - EndocrinologyMaharashtra 59.Prof. Hakim Syed KhaleefathullahMedicine - Unani MedicineTamil Nadu 60.Dr. Milind Vasant KirtaneMedicine - ENT SurgeoryMaharashtra 61.Dr. Lalit KumarMedicine - oncologyDelhi 62.Dr. Mohan MishraMedicineBihar 63.Dr. M. Subhadra NairMedicine - GynecologyKerala 64.Dr. Ashok PanagariyaMedicine - NeurologyRajasthan 65.Dr. Narendra Kumar PandeyMedicine - SurgeryHaryana 66.Dr. Sunil PradhanMedicine - NeurologyUttar Pradesh 67.Dr. Ashok RajgopalMedicine - OrthopaedicsDelhi 68.Dr. Kamini A. RaoMedicine - Reproductive MedicineKarnataka 69.Dr. Sarbeswar SahariahMedicine - SurgeryAndhra Pradesh 70.Prof. Om Prakash UpadhyayaMedicinePunjab 71.Prof. (Dr.) Mahesh VermaMedicine - Dental SciencDelhi 72.Dr. J.S. TitiyalMedicine- OpthalmologyDelhi 73.Dr. Nitish NaikMedicine- CardiologyDelhi 74.Dr. Surbrat Kumar AcharyaMedicine- GastroenterologyDelhi 75.Dr. Rajesh Kumar GroverMedicine-OncologyDelhi 76.Dr. Naheed AbidiLiterature and EducationUttar Pradesh 77.Prof. Ashok ChakradharLiterature and EducationDelhi 78.Shri Chhakchhuak ChhuanvawraLiterature and EducationMizoram 79.Shri Keki N. DaruwallaLiterature and EducationDelhi 80.Prof. Ganesh Narayandas DeviLiterature and EducationGujarat 81.Prof. Kolakaluri EnochLiterature and EducationAndhra Pradesh 82.Prof. (Dr.) Ved Kumari GhaiLiterature and EducationJammu and Kashmir 83.Smt. Manorama JafaLiterature and EducationDelhi 84.Prof. Rehana KhatoonLiterature and EducationDelhi 85.Dr. Waikhom Gojen MeeiteiLiterature and EducationManipur 86.Shri Vishnu Narayanan NamboothiriLiterature and EducationKerala 87.Prof. Dinesh SinghLiterature and EducationDelhi 88.Dr. (Mrs.) P. KilemsunglaLiterature and EducationNagaland 89.Ms. Anjum ChopraSports - CricketDelhi 90.Ms. Sunil DabasSports - KabbadiHaryana 91.Shri Love Raj Singh DharmshaktuSports - MountaineeringDelhi 92.Ms. Dipika Rebecca PallikalSports - SquashTamil Nadu 93.Shri H. Boniface PrabhuSports - Wheelchair TennisKarnataka 94.Shri Yuvraj SinghSports - CricketHaryana 95.Smt. Mamta SodhaSports - MountaineeringHaryana 96.Ms Parveen TalhaCivil ServiceUttar Pradesh 97.Late Dr. Narendra Achyut DabholkarSocial WorkMaharashtra 98.Shri Ashok Kumar MagoTrade and IndustryUSA 99.Dr. Siddharth MukherjeeMedicine-OncologyUSA 100.Dr. Vamsi MoothaMedicine - Biomedical ResearchUSA 101.Dr. Sengaku Mayeda, ,Literature and EducationJapan

राजस्थान पुलिस कांस्टेबल भर्ती परीक्षा-2013में आये है, धन्यवाद् !! Rajasthan Police constable Exam -2013 Quiz - 1 1. राजस्थान में पुलिस यूनिवर्सिटी खोलने की घोषणा किस जिले में की गई है ? Ans: - जोधपुर 2. विख्यात गजल गायक जगजीत सिंह का पैतृक निवास स्थान है ? Ans: - श्री गंगानगर 3. राजस्थान में दर्रा अभ्यारण्य कहाँ है ? Ans: - कोटा 4. पाकिस्तान से आने वाली थार एक्सप्रेस का राजस्थान में प्रथम स्टेशन कहाँ है? Ans: - मुनाबाब 5. पांचना बांध कहाँ स्थित है ? Ans: - करौली 6. राजस्थान की किस प्रसिद्ध झील पर "नटनी का चबूतरा" स्थित है ? Ans: - पिछौला 7. डांग क्षेत्र विकास किस क्षेत्र से सम्बंधित है? Ans: - कोटा-बूंदी -सवाई माधोपुर -धौलपुर 8. राजस्थान की किन दो जिलों में कोई भी नदी नहीं है? Ans: - बीकानेर व चुरू 9. गोरबंद आभूषण है? Ans: - ऊंट के गले का 10. राजस्थान में दुलारी योजना का सम्बन्ध किससे है ? Ans: - किशोरी बालिकाओं को जीवन कौशल शिक्षा प्रदान करने से 11. पटवों की हवेली कहाँ स्थित है ? Ans: - जैसलमेर 12. बाड़मेर प्रिंट किस नाम से जाना जाता है ? Ans: - अजरक प्रिंट 13. सिरोही क्षेत्र की पहाड़ियों को स्थानीय भाषा में किस नाम से जाना जाता है ? Ans: - भाकर 14. चित्तोडगढ की किस रानी ने बादशाह हुमायूं से मदद मांगी थी ? Ans: - रानी कर्णवती 15. राजस्थान का खुजराहो किस मंदिर को कहा जाता है ? Ans: - किराडू मंदिर 16. बनास नदी पॉर कौनसा बांध है ? Ans: - बीसलपुर बांध 17. किस विश्वविद्यालय का नाम पूर्व राष्ट्रपति सर्वपल्ली राधाकृष्णन के नाम पर रखने का निर्णय लिया गया है ? Ans: - राष्ट्रीय आयुर्वेद विश्वविद्यालय, जोधपुर 18. वनस्थली विद्यापीठ (डीम्ड विश्वविद्यालय) किस जिले में है ? Ans: - टोंक 19. चुरू में "तालछापर'' क्यूँ प्रसिद्ध है? Ans: - काले हिरणों के अभ्यारण्य के लिए 20. ग्रेट इंडियन बस्टर्ड किसे कहते है ? Ans: - गोडावण

IQ & Aptitude Test IQ Test So whats your IQ? Test yourself and find out in 20 mins. Aptitude Test The definitive test to tell you where your aptitude lies. Test of Analytical Skills This test looks at how well you can draw logical conclusions Personality Test 5 Factor Personality Test Personality as per the 5 most telling factors. Do You Know Yourself? Discover how well you know yourself. Handwriting Analysis Your handwriting reflects your true personality. Relationship Test Zodiac Match Test Which zodiac sign is your best match? The Stronger Partner How is power distributed in your partnership? Cheating Partner? Find out whether or not you have something to worry about. Career Test Discover Your Career Skills How well do you know yourself and your abilities? Test Your Resume Do you have a winning resume? Perceptual Skills Test How well can you think with symbols and shapes?

UGC NET EXAM SCHEME-The National Educational Testing Bureau ofUniversity Grants Commission(UGC) conducts National Eligibility Test (NET) to determine eligibility for lectureship and for award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) for Indian nationals in order to ensure minimum standards for the entrants in the teaching profession and research. The Test is conducted in Humanities (including languages), Social Sciences, Forensic Science, Environmental Sciences, Computer Science and Applications and Electronic Science. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) conducts theUGC-CSIR NETfor other Science subjects, namely, Life Sciences, Physical Sciences, Chemical Sciences, Mathematical Sciences and Earth Atmospheric Ocean & Planetary Sciences jointly with the UGC. The tests are conducted twice in a year generally in the months of June and December. For candidates who desire to pursue research, the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) is available for five years subject to fulfillment of certain conditions. UGC has allocated a number of fellowships to the universities for the candidates who qualify the test for JRF. The JRFs are awarded to the meritorious candidates from among the candidates qualifiying for eligibility for lectureship in theNET.JRFs are available only to the candidates who opt for it in their application forms. The test for Junior Research Fellowship is being conducted since 1984. The Government of India, through its notification dated 22nd July, 1988 entrusted the task of conducting the eligibility test for lectureship to UGC. Consequently, UGC conducted the first National Eligibility Test, common to both eligibility for Lectureship and Junior Research Fellowship in two parts, that is, in December 1989 and in March , 1990. N E T Schedule UGC conducts NET twice a year, i.e., in the months ofJuneandDecember. The notifications announcing the June and December examinations are published in the months of March and September respectively in the weekly journal of nation-wide circulation, viz, Employment News. N E T Results Declaration Schedule The result of June, UGC-NET is declared generally in the month of October. Similarly December, UGC-NET result is usually declared in the month of April. TheUGC-NETresults published in the Employment News are also available on UGC website. N E T for Science Subjects The NET in Major Science Subjects, viz., Chemical Sciences; Earth Atmospheric Ocean & Planetary Sciences; Life Sciences; Mathematical Sciences and Physical Sciences is conducted jointly with the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR),New Delhi. The concerned notifications are issued separately by CSIR. Submission of the Application Forms for Appearing in The UGC-NET The procedure for applying forUGC-NETis described in detail in the notification for the relevant examination. The notification is published in the Employment News generally in the months of March and September and is also uploaded on the UGC website www.ugc.ac.in . Non-Receipt of NET Certificate. In the case of non-receipt of NET certificate the candidates are advised to correspond with/contact the Head, NET Bureau, UGC, South Campus, University of Delhi, Benito Juarez Marg., New Delhi 110 021.In their covering letter, they must state their Roll No., the date of UGC-NET in which they have appeared and UGC-Ref. No. (in case known to them). In case, they have not submitted the attested copies of their documents earlier, they may do so with the covering letter duly signed by them. Attested copies of the following documents may be submitted: 1.High School/Higher Secondary/Matriculation Certificate depicting date of birth. 2.Master's degree/Provisional Certificate. 3.Consolidated mark-sheet of Master's degree course. (Wherever grades are assigned, conversion table in terms of consolidated percentage may be produced from the issuing authority). 4.Caste certificate (only in case of SC/ST/OBC candidates) 5. Certificate of Physical disability (only in case of Physically Handicapped and Visually Handicapped candidates). Notes: 1.All certificate have to be attested by a gazetted officer with his/her official stamp bearing his/her name, designation and official address. 2.The certificates, which are in languages other than Hindi and English, may be translated in Hindi or English and attested by the issuing authority of the original certificates. Procedure of issuing Duplicate Certificate Duplicate NET certificate shall be issued only in the event of loss/ non-receipt of the original one. The candidate may submit the following documents for getting the duplicate certificate issued: 01An affidavit on a Judicial stamp paper duly attested by the competent Authority for the loss of original certificate issued by the UGC mentioning the name of the candidate, his/her particulars like father's and mother's names, date of UGC-NET, Roll number, subject, address etc. The candidate must state in the affidavit that in case of his/her discovering the original NET certificate/JRF Award letter, he/she would not misuse it and return it to the NET Bureau. 02A demand draft of Rs. 100/- drawn in favour of the Secretary, University Grants Commission, New Delhi payable at State Bank of India, Service Branch, (Code No. 7687), New Delhi. 03An attested Copy of FIR registered at a Police Station. The Attestation stamp of the Class-I gazetted officer must bear his/her name, designation and official address.

1.)When was the first underground railway (Metro Railway) started? (A) 1982 (B) 1989 (C) 1984 (D) 1992 View Answer Correct Answer: C. 2.)Shatabdi Express train was started in (A) 1984 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1985 View Answer Correct Answer: B. 3.)At which of the following places Diesel Component Works is established? (A) Jamshedpur (B) Patiala (C) Perambur (D) Varanasi View Answer Correct Answer: B. 4.)Which Zone is the largest in Indian Railways? (A) Central Railway (B) Northern Railway (C) Eastern Railway (D) Western Railway View Answer Correct Answer: C. 5. The railway station situated in the extreme south is (A) Chennai (B) Cochin (C) Kanyakumari (D) Trivandrum View Answer Correct Answer: C.

50 Common Interview Questions and Answers : Review these typical interview questions and think about how you would answer them. Read the questions listed; you will also find some strategy suggestions with it. 1. Tell me about yourself: The most often asked question in interviews. You need to have a short statement prepared in your mind. Be careful that it does not sound rehearsed. Limit it to work-related items unless instructed otherwise. Talk about things you have done and jobs you have held that relate to the position you are interviewing for. Start with the item farthest back and work up to the present. 2. Why did you leave your last job? Stay positive regardless of the circumstances. Never refer to a major problem with management and never speak ill of supervisors, co- workers or the organization. If you do, you will be the one looking bad. Keep smiling and talk about leaving for a positive reason such as an opportunity, a chance to do something special or other forward- looking reasons. 3. What experience do you have in this field? Speak about specifics that relate to the position you are applying for. If you do not have specific experience, get as close as you can. 4. Do you consider yourself successful? You should always answer yes and briefly explain why. A good explanation is that you have set goals, and you have met some and are on track to achieve the others. 5. What do co-workers say about you? Be prepared with a quote or two from co-workers. Either a specific statement or a paraphrase will work. Jill Clark, a co-worker at Smith Company, always said I was the hardest workers she had ever known. It is as powerful as Jill having said it at the interview herself. 6. What do you know about this organization? This question is one reason to do some research on the organization before the interview. Find out where they have been and where they are going. What are the current issues and who are the major players? 7. What have you done to improve your knowledge in the last year? Try to include improvement activities that relate to the job. A wide variety of activities can be mentioned as positive self-improvement. Have some good ones handy to mention. 8. Are you applying for other jobs? Be honest but do not spend a lot of time in this area. Keep the focus on this job and what you can do for this organization. Anything else is a distraction. 9. Why do you want to work for this organization? This may take some thought and certainly, should be based on the research you have done on the organization. Sincerity is extremely important here and will easily be sensed. Relate it to your long-term career goals. 10. Do you know anyone who works for us? Be aware of the policy on relatives working for the organization. This can affect your answer even though they asked about friends not relatives. Be careful to mention a friend only if they are well thought of. 11. What kind of salary do you need? A loaded question. A nasty little game that you will probably lose if you answer first. So, do not answer it. Instead, say something like, That's a tough question. Can you tell me the range for this position? In most cases, the interviewer, taken off guard, will tell you. If not, say that it can depend on the details of the job. Then give a wide range. 12. Are you a team player? You are, of course, a team player. Be sure to have examples ready. Specifics that show you often perform for the good of the team rather than for yourself are good evidence of your team attitude. Do not brag, just say it in a matter-of-fact tone. This is a key point. 13. How long would you expect to work for us if hired? Specifics here are not good. Something like this should work: I'd like it to be a long time. Or As long as we both feel I'm doing a good job. 14. Have you ever had to fire anyone? How did you feel about that? This is serious. Do not make light of it or in any way seem like you like to fire people. At the same time, you will do it when it is the right thing to do. When it comes to the organization versus the individual who has created a harmful situation, you will protect the organization. Remember firing is not the same as layoff or reduction in force. 15. What is your philosophy towards work? The interviewer is not looking for a long or flowery dissertation here. Do you have strong feelings that the job gets done? Yes. That's the type of answer that works best here. Short and positive, showing a benefit to the organization. 16. If you had enough money to retire right now, would you? Answer yes if you would. But since you need to work, this is the type of work you prefer. Do not say yes if you do not mean it. 17. Have you ever been asked to leave a position? If you have not, say no. If you have, be honest, brief and avoid saying negative things about the people or organization involved. 18. Explain how you would be an asset to this organization. You should be anxious for this question. It gives you a chance to highlight your best points as they relate to the position being discussed. Give a little advance thought to this relationship. 19. Why should we hire you? Point out how your assets meet what the organization needs. Do not mention any other candidates to make a comparison. 20. Tell me about a suggestion you have made. Have a good one ready. Be sure and use a suggestion that was accepted and was then considered successful. One related to the type of work applied for is a real plus. 21. What irritates you about co-workers? This is a trap question. Think real hard but fail to come up with anything that irritates you. A short statement that you seem to get along with folks is great. 22. What is your greatest strength? Numerous answers are good, just stay positive. A few good examples: Your ability to prioritize, Your problem-solving skills, Your ability to work under pressure, Your ability to focus on projects, Your professional expertise, Your leadership skills, Your positive attitude 23. Tell me about your dream job. Stay away from a specific job. You cannot win. If you say the job you are contending for is it, you strain credibility. If you say another job is it, you plant the suspicion that you will be dissatisfied with this position if hired. The best is to stay genetic and say something like: A job where I love the work, like the people, can contribute and can't wait to get to work. 24. Why do you think you would do well at this job? Give several reasons and include skills, experience and interest. 25. What are you looking for in a job? See answer # 23 26. What kind of person would you refuse to work with? Do not be trivial. It would take disloyalty to the organization, violence or lawbreaking to get you to object. Minor objections will label you as a whiner. 27. What is more important to you: the money or the work? Money is always important, but the work is the most important. There is no better answer. 28. What would your previous supervisor say your strongest point is? There are numerous good possibilities: Loyalty, Energy, Positive attitude, Leadership, Team player, Expertise, Initiative, Patience, Hard work, Creativity, Problem solver 29. Tell me about a problem you had with a supervisor. Biggest trap of all. This is a test to see if you will speak ill of your boss. If you fall for it and tell about a problem with a former boss, you may well below the interview right there. Stay positive and develop a poor memory about any trouble with a supervisor. 30. What has disappointed you about a job? Don't get trivial or negative. Safe areas are few but can include: Not enough of a challenge. You were laid off in a reduction Company did not win a contract, which would have given you more responsibility. 31. Tell me about your ability to work under pressure. You may say that you thrive under certain types of pressure. Give an example that relates to the type of position applied for. 32. Do your skills match this job or another job more closely? Probably this one. Do not give fuel to the suspicion that you may want another job more than this one. 33. What motivates you to do your best on the job? This is a personal trait that only you can say, but good examples are: Challenge, Achievement, Recognition 34. Are you willing to work overtime? Nights? Weekends? This is up to you. Be totally honest. 35. How would you know you were successful on this job? Several ways are good measures: You set high standards for yourself and meet them. Your outcomes are a success. Your boss tell you that you are successful 36. Would you be willing to relocate if required? You should be clear on this with your family prior to the interview if you think there is a chance it may come up. Do not say yes just to get the job if the real answer is no. This can create a lot of problems later on in your career. Be honest at this point and save yourself uture grief. 37. Are you willing to put the interests of the organization ahead of your own? This is a straight loyalty and dedication question. Do not worry about the deep ethical and philosophical implications. Just say yes. 38. Describe your management style. Try to avoid labels. Some of the more common labels, like progressive, salesman or consensus, can have several meanings or descriptions depending on which management expert you listen to. The situational style is safe, because it says you will manage according to the situation, instead of one size fits all. 39. What have you learned from mistakes on the job? Here you have to come up with something or you strain credibility. Make it small, well intentioned mistake with a positive lesson learned. An example would be working too far ahead of colleagues on a project and thus throwing coordination off. 40. Do you have any blind spots? Trick question. If you know about blind spots, they are no longer blind spots. Do not reveal any personal areas of concern here. Let them do their own discovery on your bad points. Do not hand it to them. 41. If you were hiring a person for this job, what would you look for? Be careful to mention traits that are needed and that you have. 42. Do you think you are overqualified for this position? Regardless of your qualifications, state that you are very well qualified for the position. 43. How do you propose to compensate for your lack of experience? First, if you have experience that the interviewer does not know about, bring that up: Then, point out (if true) that you are a hard working quick learner. 44. What qualities do you look for in a boss? Be generic and positive. Safe qualities are knowledgeable, a sense of humor, fair, loyal to subordinates and holder of high standards. All bosses think they have these traits. 45. Tell me about a time when you helped resolve a dispute between others. Pick a specific incident. Concentrate on your problem solving technique and not the dispute you settled. 46. What position do you prefer on a team working on a project? Be honest. If you are comfortable in different roles, point that out. 47. Describe your work ethic. Emphasize benefits to the organization. Things like, determination to get the job done and work hard but enjoy your work are good. 48. What has been your biggest professional disappointment? Be sure that you refer to something that was beyond your control. Show acceptance and no negative feelings. 49. Tell me about the most fun you have had on the job. Talk about having fun by accomplishing something for the organization. 50. Do you have any questions for me? Always have some questions prepared. Questions prepared where you will be an asset to the organization are good. How soon will I be able to be productive? and What type of projects will I be able to assist on? are examples. And Finally Good Luck

31.)Tetraethyl lead is used as ___ (A)Mosquito repellent (B)Pain Killer (C)Fire extinguisher (D)Petrol additive View Answer Correct Answer: D. 32.)Which of the following is used in beauty parlours for hair setting? (A)Phosphorus (B)Sulphur (C)Chlorine (D)Silicon View Answer Correct Answer: B. 33.)Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid in room temperature? (A)Bromine (B)Chlorine (C)Helium (D)Phosphorus View Answer Correct Answer: A. 34.)Which of the following is the lightest metal? A.MercuryB.Lithium C.LeadD.Silver View Answer Correct Answer: B.

25.)Photoelectric effect was discovered by ___ (A)Einstein (B)Hertz (C)Bohr (D)Plank View Answer Correct Answer: A. 26.)The hydrogenation of the vegetables oils takes place in the presence of finely divided ___ (A)Aluminum (B)Charcoal (C)Silica (D)Nickel View Answer Correct Answer: D. 27.)In which of the following processes light energy is converted into chemical energy? (A)Respiration (B)Fermentation (C)Photosynthesis (D)Photorespiration View Answer Correct Answer: C. 28.) Air is a/an A.CompoundB.Element C.ElectrolyteD.Mixture View Answer Correct Answer: D. 29.) Gobar gas contains mainly ___ (A)Methane (B)Carbon dioxide (C)Butane (D)Carbon Monoxide View Answer Correct Answer: A. 30.) The most malleable metal is ___ (A)Silver (B)Gold (C)Aluminum (D)Sodium View Answer Correct Answer: B.

19.)Heavy water is A.Deuterium Oxide B.Ph7 C.Rain Water D.Tritium Oxide View Answer Correct Answer: A. 20.)Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? (A)Burning of paper (B)Digestion of food (C)Conversion of water into steam (D)Burning of coal View Answer Correct Answer: C. 21.)Which of the following is a physical change? (A)Oxidation (B)Reduction (C)Sublimation (D)Decomposition View Answer Correct Answer: C 22.)Marsh gas is A.NitrogenB.Ethane C.MethaneD.Hydrogen View Answer Correct Answer: C 23.) Which of the following is not a chemical reaction? (A)Burning of paper (B)Digestion of food (C)Conversion of water into steam (D)Burning of coal View Answer Correct Answer: C 24.) Which of the following is a chemical change? (A)Rusting of iron (B)Tempering of iron (C)Melting of iron (D)Bending of iron View Answer Correct Answer: A

13.)Soda water contains A.Carbonic Acid B.Sulphuric Acid C.Carbon Dioxide D.Nitrous Acid View Answer Correct Answer: C. 14.)Balloons are filled with A.NitrogenB.Helium C.OxygenD.Argon View Answer Correct Answer: B. 15.)LPG contains___ (A)Butane and Isobutene (B)Butane and Propane (C)Isobutene and Propane (D)Butane, Isobutene and Propane View Answer Correct Answer: B. 16.)Cooking oil can be converted into vegetable ghee by the process of____ (A)Oxidation(B)Crystallization (C)Distillation(D)Hydrogenation View Answer Correct Answer: D. 17.)Milk is an example of ___ (A)Suspension(B)True Solution (C)Emulsion(D)Gel View Answer Correct Answer: C. 18.)Sodium metal is kept under A.PetrolB.Alcohol C.WaterD.Kerosene View Answer Correct Answer: D.

7.)The average salinity of sea water is A.3%B.3.5% C.2.5%D.2% View Answer Correct Answer: B. 8.)What are soaps? (A)Salts of silicates (B)Ester of heavy fatty acids (C)Sodium or potassium salts of heavier fatty acids (D)Mixture of glycerol and alcohol View Answer Correct Answer: C. 9.)Which of the following is a protein? (A)Wool(B)Starch (C)Cellulose(D)Natural rubber View Answer Correct Answer: D. 10.)Which of the following is commonly called a polyamide? (A)Rayon(B)Orion (C)Terylene(D)Nylon View Answer Correct Answer: D. 11.)The gas usually filled in the electric bulb is A.NitrogenB.Hydrogen C.Carbon dioxideD.Oxygen View Answer Correct Answer: A. 12.)Which of the gas is not known as green house gas? A.MethaneB.Nitrous oxide C.Carbon dioxideD.Hydrogen View Answer Correct Answer: D.

General Science Objective Questions and answer 1.)Which of the following metals forms an amalgam with other metals? A.TinB.Mercury C.LeadD.Zinc View Answer Correct Answer: B. 2.)Water gas is prepared by passing __ (A)Steam over white hot coke (B)Air over red hot coke (C)Methane over red hot coke (D)Steam over heated sulphur View Answer Correct Answer: A. 3.)Heavy water is ___ (A)Tritium oxide(B)Deuterium oxide (C)Rain water(D)Water at 4°C View Answer Correct Answer: B 4.)The gases used in different types of welding would include __ (A)Oxygen & Hydrogen(B)Oxygen, acetylene & argon (C)Oxygen & acetylene(D)Oxygen, hydrogen & nitrogen View Answer Correct Answer: C 5.)Which of the following gases is lighter than air? (A)Carbon dioxide(B)Oxygen (C)Ammonia(D)Chlorine View Answer Correct Answer: C 6.)What is laughing gas? (A.)Nitrous Oxide(B.)Carbon monoxide (C.)Sulphur dioxide(D.)Hydrogen peroxide View Answer Correct Answer: A

25 GK Questions and Answers on India 1. The State with largest population in India: (a) West Bengal (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan 2. The largest State in area in India is: (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala 3. The smallest State in area of the Indian Union is: (a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Tripura (d) Karnataka 4. India is divided into how many PIN code zones? (a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Six (d) Nine 5. India's longest platform is at: (a) Delhi (b) Sonepur (c) Kharagpur (d) None of these 6. India's largest populated city is: (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (r) Delhi (d) Chennai 7. The largest museum in India has been built in: (a) Delhi (b) Kolkata (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai 8. The largest artificial lake in India is: (a) Pushkar Lake (b) Dal Lake (c) Govind Sagar (Bhakra) (d) Nainital Lake 9. The most thickly poplulated State of India is: (a) Bihar (b) Punjab (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka 10. How many States touch the boundary of Madhya Pradesh? (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8 11. The number of dialects in India is about: (a) 50 (b) 150 (c) 250 (d) 200 12. Which State in India has the lowest literacy? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Mizoram (c) Manipur (d) None of these 13. The national flower of India is: (a) Rose (b) Lotus (c) Sun-flower (d) None of these 14. Which is the State Capital situated on the river Ganges? (a) Patna (b) Lucknow (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai 15. The Raga which is sung early in the morning is : (a) Darbari (b) Todi (c) Bhimpalasi (d) Bhopali 16. What is the total number of major ports in India? (a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 13 17. Which State of India has the highest per capita income? (a) Haryana (b) Punjab (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar 18. India first TV Centre was set up at: (a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Pune 19. Largest Zoo in India is the: (a)Delhi Zoo (b)Mumbai Zoo (c)Zoological Garden (Alipore, Kolkata) (d)Guwahati Zoo 20. Which Indian State is often called the heart of India? (a) West Bengal (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Punjab 21. Where is the Central Drug Research Institute situated? (a) Mumbai (b) Lucknow (c) Delhi (d) Ahmedabad 22. Where is Indian Institute of Petroleum? (a) Dehradun (b) Pimpri (c) Dhanbad (d) Pune 23. Where is the National Physical Laboratory? (a) Ahmedabad (b) Pune (c) New Delhi (d) Lucknow 24. Where is Central Mining Research Station? (a) Dhanbad (b) Pune (c) Cuttack (d) Pimpri 25. The Heavy Engineering Corporation is at. (a) Pimpri (b) Ranchi (c) Trichy (d) Pune Answers 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (f) 10. © 11. © 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. © 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. © 24. (a) 25. (b)

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Question6; Interviewer said “I shall either ask you ten easy questions or onereally difficult question. Think well before you make up your mind!” The boy thought for awhile and said, “my choice is one really difficult question.” “Well, good luck to you, you have made your own choice! Now tell methis. “What comes first, Day or Night?” The boy was jolted into reality as his admission depends on thecorrectness of his answer, but he thought for a while andsaid, “It’s the DAY sir!” “How” the interviewer asked, “Sorry sir, you promised me that you will not ask me a SECONDdifficult question!” And hence, he was selected as because of his quick-wickedness.

Question 5: Where Lord Rama would have celebrated his “First Diwali”?People will start thinking of Ayodhya, Mithila [Janak's place], Lankaetc…But the logic is, Diwali was a celebrated as a mark of Lord KrishnaKilling Narakasura. In Dusavataar, Krishnavathaar comes afterRaamavathaar.So, Lord Rama would not have celebrated the Diwali At all!

Question 4: Interviewer: He ordered a cup of coffee for the candidate. Coffee arrived kept before the candidate, then he asked what is before you?Candidate: Instantly replied “Tea”He got selected.You know how and why did he say “TEA” when he knows very well that coffee was kept before.(Answer: The question was “What is before you (U – alphabet) Reply was “TEA” ( T – alphabet)Alphabet “T” was before Alphabet “U”

Question 2: What will you do if I run away with your sister? The candidate who was selected answered ” I will not get a better match for my sister than you sir”

Question 2: What will you do if I run away with your sister? The candidate who was selected answered ” I will not get a better match for my sister than you sir”

Question 1: You are driving along in your car on a wild, stormy night, it’s raining heavily, when suddenly you pass by a bus stop, and you see three people waiting for a bus: * An old lady who looks as if she is about to die.* An old friend who once saved your life.* The perfect partner you have been dreaming about. Which one would you choose to offer a ride to, knowing very well thatthere could only be one passenger in your car? This is a moral/ethical dilemma that was once actually used as part of a job application. He simply answered:“I would give the car keys to my Old friend and let him take the lady to the hospital. I would stay behind and wait for the bus with the partner of my dreams.”Sometimes, we gain more if we are able to give up our stubborn thought limitations. Never forget to “Think Outside of the Box.”

तीन बाते :- *.तीन चीजों में मन लगाने से उन्नति होती है - ईश्वर, परिश्रम और विद्या। *.तीन चीजों को कभी छोटी ना समझे - बीमारी, कर्जा, शत्रु। *.तीनों चीजों को हमेशा वश में रखो - मन, काम और लोभ। *.तीन चीज़ें निकलने पर वापिस नहीं आती - तीर कमान से, बात जुबान से और प्राण शरीर से। *.तीन चीज़ें कमज़ोर बना देती है - बदचलनी, क्रोध और लालच। *.तीन चीज़े असल उद्धेश्य से रोकता हैं - बदचलनी, क्रोध और लालच। *.तीन चीज़ें कोई चुरा नहीं सकता - अकल, चरित्र, हुनर। *.तीन व्यक्ति वक़्त पर पहचाने जाते हैं - स्त्री, भाई, दोस्त। *.तीनों व्यक्ति का सम्मान करो - माता, पिता और गुरु। *.तीनों व्यक्ति पर सदा दया करो - बालक, भूखे और पागल। *.तीन चीज़े कभी नहीं भूलनी चाहिए - कर्ज़, मर्ज़ और फर्ज़। *.तीन बातें कभी मत भूलें - उपकार, उपदेश और उदारता। *.तीन चीज़े याद रखना ज़रुरी हैं - सच्चाई, कर्तव्य और मृत्यु। *.तीन बातें चरित्र को गिरा देती हैं - चोरी, निंदा और झूठ। *.तीन चीज़ें हमेशा दिल में रखनी चाहिए - नम्रता, दया और माफ़ी। *.तीन चीज़ों पर कब्ज़ा करो - ज़बान, आदत और गुस्सा। *.तीन चीज़ों से दूर भागो - आलस्य, खुशामद और बकवास। *.तीन चीज़ों के लिए मर मिटो - धेर्य, देश और मित्र। *.तीन चीज़ें इंसान की अपनी होती हैं - रूप, भाग्य और स्वभाव। *.तीन चीजों पर अभिमान मत करो – ताकत,सुन्दरता, यौवन। *.तीन चीज़ें अगर चली गयी तो कभी वापस नहीं आती - समय, शब्द और अवसर। *.तीन चीज़ें इन्सान कभी नहीं खो सकता - शान्ति, आशा और ईमानदारी। *.तीन चीज़ें जो सबसे अमूल्य है - प्यार, आत्मविश्वास और सच्चा मित्र। *.तीन चीजे जो कभी निश्चित नहीं होती - सपनें, सफलता और भाग्य। *.तीन चीजें, जो जीवन को संवारती है - कड़ी मेहनत, निष्ठा और त्याग। *.तीन चीज़ें किसी भी इन्सान को बरबाद कर सकती है - शराब, घमन्ड और क्रोध। *.तीन चीजों से बचने की कोशिश करनी चाहिये – बुरी संगत, स्वार्थ और निन्दा। *.कोई भी कार्य करने से पहले – सोचो, समझो, फिर करो।

चाँद के बारे मेँ रोचक जानकारी ~_~ 1. अब तक सिर्फ 12 मनुष्य चाँद पर गए है. 2. चांद धरती के आकार का सिर्फ 27 प्रतीशत हिस्सा ही है. 3. चाँद का वजन लगभग 81,00,00,00, 000(81 अरब) टन है. 4. पूरा चाँद आधे चाँद से 9 गुना ज्यादा चमकदार होता है. 5. नील आर्मस्ट्रोग ने चाँद पर जब अपना पहला कदम रखा तो उससे जो निशान चाँद की जमीन पर बनावह अब तक है और अगले कुछ लाखों सालो तक ऐसा ही रहेगा. क्योंकि चांद पर हवा तो है ही नही जो इसे मिटा दे. 6. जब अंतरिक्ष यात्री एलन सैपर्ड चाँद पर थे तब उन्होंने एक golf ball को hit मारा जो कि तकरीबन 800 मीटर दूर तक गई. 7. अगर आप का वजन धरती पर 60 किलो है तो चाँद की low gravity की वजह से चाँद पर आपका वजन 10 किलो ही होगा. 8. चाँद पर पड़े काले धब्बों को चीन में चाँद पर मेढ़क कहा जाता है. 9. जब सारे अपोलो अंतरिक्ष यान चाँद से वापिस आए तब वह कुल मिलाकर 296 चट्टानों के टुकड़े लेकर आए जिनका द्रव्यमान (वजन) 382 किलो था. 10. चाँद का सिर्फ 59 प्रतीशत हिस्सा ही धरती से दिखता है. 11. चाँद धरती के ईर्ध-गिर्द घूमते समय अपना सिर्फ एक हिस्सा ही धरती की तरह रखता है इसलिए चाँद का दूसरा पासा आज तक धरती से किसी मनुष्य ने नही देखा. 12. चाँद का व्यास धरती के व्यास का सिर्फ चौथा हिस्सा है और लगभग 49 चाँद धरती में समा सकते हैं. 13 सौर मंडल के 63 उपग्रहो में चाँद का आकार 5 वे नंम्बर पर है ।

UPSC is conducting the IAS Prelims 2014 on 24thAugust, 2014 and January has almost passed. That leaves the candidates with almost 7 months for the preparation. But it is not late yet, and if the candidates start preparing now with a proper strategy, there is enough time to prepare for the IAS Prelims 2014. Here is the strategy for General Studies Paper I,which has very wide syllabus, that the candidates can follow to increase their chances of selection:- *.The candidates should start studying at least one daily nationalnewspaperto get hold of the current events of national and international importance. They can devote 45 minutes to 1 hour daily to the newspaper initially, and then reduce it as they get an understanding of what to read and what to leave. The candidates can clarify the doubts about the things that are new to them, or they find difficult, on the internet. Keep on making notes from the newspaper side by side, as this is going to help in IAS Main (Written) too. *.Read one monthlyMagazineon current affairs to make sure you do not miss out on any important news. The monthly current affairs e-book of Jagranjosh is a good option. *.Simultaneously, start going through the 6th-12thNCERT booksfor General Science, Indian History, Geography, Polity and Indian Economy. *.In History section, the focus should be more onModern IndiaandIndian National Movement, as more questions are being asked from this section in recent years. *.Try to explore the main issues behind the recent controversies and what are the legal points hidden in it. Also link it with the Constitution and any specific national and International Law. *.The candidates can purchase any one book for the different sections of the IAS Prelims syllabus. The candidates should go for the best available book rather than to wait for the best book. *.Go through India Year book (you can read specific chapters related to syllabus) and read Budget and Economic Survey. *.For theenvironmentrelated topics, readICSE board booksfor class 9-12. Also surf through internet for environment related issues. The related IGNOU Material is also good to study. *.Keep on making notes simultaneously while reading the topics, and mark the important points. *.Keep on browsing the internet for the points where you find any difficulty, or for the topics which the candidates cannot find any study material for. *.In the last one month, stop reading any new material. Try to revise at least twice what you’ve read. As the candidates revise for the first time, they can mark the difficult and the very important points with the help of a highlighter or make a synopsis. This will make the second revision a much easier and quicker process.

UPSC is conducting the IAS Prelims 2014 on 24thAugust, 2014 and January has almost passed. That leaves the candidates with almost 7 months for the preparation. But it is not late yet, and if the candidates start preparing now with a proper strategy, there is enough time to prepare for the IAS Prelims 2014. Here is the strategy for General Studies Paper I,which has very wide syllabus, that the candidates can follow to increase their chances of selection:- *.The candidates should start studying at least one daily nationalnewspaperto get hold of the current events of national and international importance. They can devote 45 minutes to 1 hour daily to the newspaper initially, and then reduce it as they get an understanding of what to read and what to leave. The candidates can clarify the doubts about the things that are new to them, or they find difficult, on the internet. Keep on making notes from the newspaper side by side, as this is going to help in IAS Main (Written) too. *.Read one monthlyMagazineon current affairs to make sure you do not miss out on any important news. The monthly current affairs e-book of Jagranjosh is a good option. *.Simultaneously, start going through the 6th-12thNCERT booksfor General Science, Indian History, Geography, Polity and Indian Economy. *.In History section, the focus should be more onModern IndiaandIndian National Movement, as more questions are being asked from this section in recent years. *.Try to explore the main issues behind the recent controversies and what are the legal points hidden in it. Also link it with the Constitution and any specific national and International Law. *.The candidates can purchase any one book for the different sections of the IAS Prelims syllabus. The candidates should go for the best available book rather than to wait for the best book. *.Go through India Year book (you can read specific chapters related to syllabus) and read Budget and Economic Survey. *.For theenvironmentrelated topics, readICSE board booksfor class 9-12. Also surf through internet for environment related issues. The related IGNOU Material is also good to study. *.Keep on making notes simultaneously while reading the topics, and mark the important points. *.Keep on browsing the internet for the points where you find any difficulty, or for the topics which the candidates cannot find any study material for. *.In the last one month, stop reading any new material. Try to revise at least twice what you’ve read. As the candidates revise for the first time, they can mark the difficult and the very important points with the help of a highlighter or make a synopsis. This will make the second revision a much easier and quicker process.

UPSC is conducting the IAS Prelims 2014 on 24thAugust, 2014 and January has almost passed. That leaves the candidates with almost 7 months for the preparation. But it is not late yet, and if the candidates start preparing now with a proper strategy, there is enough time to prepare for the IAS Prelims 2014. Here is the strategy for General Studies Paper I,which has very wide syllabus, that the candidates can follow to increase their chances of selection:- *.The candidates should start studying at least one daily nationalnewspaperto get hold of the current events of national and international importance. They can devote 45 minutes to 1 hour daily to the newspaper initially, and then reduce it as they get an understanding of what to read and what to leave. The candidates can clarify the doubts about the things that are new to them, or they find difficult, on the internet. Keep on making notes from the newspaper side by side, as this is going to help in IAS Main (Written) too. *.Read one monthlyMagazineon current affairs to make sure you do not miss out on any important news. The monthly current affairs e-book of Jagranjosh is a good option. *.Simultaneously, start going through the 6th-12thNCERT booksfor General Science, Indian History, Geography, Polity and Indian Economy. *.In History section, the focus should be more onModern IndiaandIndian National Movement, as more questions are being asked from this section in recent years. *.Try to explore the main issues behind the recent controversies and what are the legal points hidden in it. Also link it with the Constitution and any specific national and International Law. *.The candidates can purchase any one book for the different sections of the IAS Prelims syllabus. The candidates should go for the best available book rather than to wait for the best book. *.Go through India Year book (you can read specific chapters related to syllabus) and read Budget and Economic Survey. *.For theenvironmentrelated topics, readICSE board booksfor class 9-12. Also surf through internet for environment related issues. The related IGNOU Material is also good to study. *.Keep on making notes simultaneously while reading the topics, and mark the important points. *.Keep on browsing the internet for the points where you find any difficulty, or for the topics which the candidates cannot find any study material for. *.In the last one month, stop reading any new material. Try to revise at least twice what you’ve read. As the candidates revise for the first time, they can mark the difficult and the very important points with the help of a highlighter or make a synopsis. This will make the second revision a much easier and quicker process.

UPSC is conducting the IAS Prelims 2014 on 24thAugust, 2014 and January has almost passed. That leaves the candidates with almost 7 months for the preparation. But it is not late yet, and if the candidates start preparing now with a proper strategy, there is enough time to prepare for the IAS Prelims 2014. Here is the strategy for General Studies Paper I,which has very wide syllabus, that the candidates can follow to increase their chances of selection:- *.The candidates should start studying at least one daily nationalnewspaperto get hold of the current events of national and international importance. They can devote 45 minutes to 1 hour daily to the newspaper initially, and then reduce it as they get an understanding of what to read and what to leave. The candidates can clarify the doubts about the things that are new to them, or they find difficult, on the internet. Keep on making notes from the newspaper side by side, as this is going to help in IAS Main (Written) too. *.Read one monthlyMagazineon current affairs to make sure you do not miss out on any important news. The monthly current affairs e-book of Jagranjosh is a good option. *.Simultaneously, start going through the 6th-12thNCERT booksfor General Science, Indian History, Geography, Polity and Indian Economy. *.In History section, the focus should be more onModern IndiaandIndian National Movement, as more questions are being asked from this section in recent years. *.Try to explore the main issues behind the recent controversies and what are the legal points hidden in it. Also link it with the Constitution and any specific national and International Law. *.The candidates can purchase any one book for the different sections of the IAS Prelims syllabus. The candidates should go for the best available book rather than to wait for the best book. *.Go through India Year book (you can read specific chapters related to syllabus) and read Budget and Economic Survey. *.For theenvironmentrelated topics, readICSE board booksfor class 9-12. Also surf through internet for environment related issues. The related IGNOU Material is also good to study. *.Keep on making notes simultaneously while reading the topics, and mark the important points. *.Keep on browsing the internet for the points where you find any difficulty, or for the topics which the candidates cannot find any study material for. *.In the last one month, stop reading any new material. Try to revise at least twice what you’ve read. As the candidates revise for the first time, they can mark the difficult and the very important points with the help of a highlighter or make a synopsis. This will make the second revision a much easier and quicker process.

UPSC is conducting the IAS Prelims 2014 on 24thAugust, 2014 and January has almost passed. That leaves the candidates with almost 7 months for the preparation. But it is not late yet, and if the candidates start preparing now with a proper strategy, there is enough time to prepare for the IAS Prelims 2014. Here is the strategy for General Studies Paper I,which has very wide syllabus, that the candidates can follow to increase their chances of selection:- *.The candidates should start studying at least one daily nationalnewspaperto get hold of the current events of national and international importance. They can devote 45 minutes to 1 hour daily to the newspaper initially, and then reduce it as they get an understanding of what to read and what to leave. The candidates can clarify the doubts about the things that are new to them, or they find difficult, on the internet. Keep on making notes from the newspaper side by side, as this is going to help in IAS Main (Written) too. *.Read one monthlyMagazineon current affairs to make sure you do not miss out on any important news. The monthly current affairs e-book of Jagranjosh is a good option. *.Simultaneously, start going through the 6th-12thNCERT booksfor General Science, Indian History, Geography, Polity and Indian Economy. *.In History section, the focus should be more onModern IndiaandIndian National Movement, as more questions are being asked from this section in recent years. *.Try to explore the main issues behind the recent controversies and what are the legal points hidden in it. Also link it with the Constitution and any specific national and International Law. *.The candidates can purchase any one book for the different sections of the IAS Prelims syllabus. The candidates should go for the best available book rather than to wait for the best book. *.Go through India Year book (you can read specific chapters related to syllabus) and read Budget and Economic Survey. *.For theenvironmentrelated topics, readICSE board booksfor class 9-12. Also surf through internet for environment related issues. The related IGNOU Material is also good to study. *.Keep on making notes simultaneously while reading the topics, and mark the important points. *.Keep on browsing the internet for the points where you find any difficulty, or for the topics which the candidates cannot find any study material for. *.In the last one month, stop reading any new material. Try to revise at least twice what you’ve read. As the candidates revise for the first time, they can mark the difficult and the very important points with the help of a highlighter or make a synopsis. This will make the second revision a much easier and quicker process.